Cisco CCNA Exploration 4.0

CCNA 2 - Final Exam Answers V4.0 (C)

2009-08-11T19:31:00.001-07:00

1. Refer to the exhibit. The output of the show ip route command for three routers on a network is displayed. All routers are operational, pings are not blocked on this network, and no default routes are installed. Which two pings will fail? (Choose two.)
• from R1 to 172.16.1.1
• from R1 to 192.168.3.1
• from R2 to 192.168.1.1
• from R2 to 192.168.3.1
• from R3 to 192.168.1.1

2. A router that uses the RIP routing protocol has an entry for a network in the routing table. It then receives an update with another entry for the same destination network but with a lower hop count. What action will the router take for this new update?
• It will append the update information to the routing table.
• It will invalidate the entry for that network in the routing table.
• It will replace the existing routing table entry with the new information.
• It will ignore the new update.

3. Which two statements are true for OSPF Hello packets? (Choose two.)
• They negotiate correct parameters among neighboring interfaces.
• They are used for dynamic neighbor discovery.
• They use timers to elect the designated router with the fastest link.
• They are received from all routers on the network and used to determine the complete network topology.
• They are used to maintain neighbor relationships.

4. A network administrator needs to configure a single router to load-balance the traffic over unequal cost paths. Which routing protocol should the administrator use?
• EIGRP
• OSPF
• RIPv1
• RIPv2

5. Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.)
• It is enabled by default on all Cisco IOS implementations.
• It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route.
• It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received.
• It instructs routers to hold all changes that might affect routes, for a specified period of time.
• It limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded.

6. Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run on one of the devices as shown. Based on this information, which two facts can be determined? (Choose two.)
• The command was run on the router.
• ABCD is a non-CISCO device.
• Layer 3 connectivity between two devices exists.
• ABCD supports routing capability.
• ABCD is connected to the Fa0/0 interface of the neighboring device.

7. Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2 and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. What can be verified from the output?
• R1 and R3 are connected to each other via the S0/0/0 interface.
• The IP address of the S0/0/0 interface of R1 is 10.1.1.2.
• The IP address of the S0/0/1 interface of R2 is 10.3.3.2.
• R2 is connected to the S0/0/1 interface of R3.

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)
• The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160.
• Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0.
• The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.
• Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
• Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route.
• No default route has been configured.

9. Refer to the exhibit. All the routers are properly configured to use the RIP routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Router A is forwarding data to router E. Which statement is true about the routing path?
• Router A will send the data via the A-D-E path that is listed in the routing table.
• Router A will load-balance the traffic between A-B-E and A-C-E.
• Router A will determine that all paths have equal metric cost.
• Router A will send the data through A-D-E and keep A-B-E and A-C-E as the backup paths.

10. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has run the following command on R1.
R1# ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.2What is the result of running this command?
• Traffic for network 192.168.2.0 is forwarded to 172.16.1.2.
• This route is automatically propagated throughout the entire network.
• Traffic for all networks is forwarded to 172.16.1.2.
• The command invokes a dynamic routing protocol for 192.168.2.0.

11. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is planning IP addressing of a new network. What part of this addressing scheme must be changed to allow communication between host A and the server?
• the IP address of the server
• the default gateway of host A
• the IP address of host A
• the default gateway of the server

12. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured OSPF using the following command:
network 192.168.1.32 0.0.0.31 area 0
Which router interface will participate in OSPF?
• FastEthernet 0/0
• FastEthernet 0/1
• Serial 0/0/0
• Serial 0/0/1

13. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured to run RIPv1 and are fully converged. Which routing updates will be received by R3?
• updates for 192.168.1.0/24 and 192.168.2.0/24
• updates for 172.16.2.0/24 and 172.16.3.0/24
• updates for 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24 and 172.16.3.0/24
• updates for 172.16.0.0/16

14. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIP protocol. Devices on the 192.168.1.1 network can ping the S0/0/0 interface on R2 but cannot ping devices on the 192.168.2.1 network. What is a possible cause of this problem?
• The routers are configured with different versions of RIP.
• R2 is not forwarding the routing updates.
• The R1 configuration should include the no auto-summary command.
• The maximum path number has been exceeded.

15. When a router boots, what is the default order to locate the Cisco IOS if there is no boot system command?
• ROM, TFTP server, flash
• flash, TFTP server, RAM
• flash, NVRAM, TFTP server
• ROM, flash, TFTP server

16. Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28?
• Router1
• Router2
• Router3
• Router4

17. Which mechanism helps to avoid routing loops by advertising a metric of infinity?
• route poisoning
• split horizon
• hold-down timer
• triggered updates

18. Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 120?
• It is the metric that is calculated by the routing protocol.
• It is the value that is used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
• It is the administrative distance of the routing protocol.
• It is the hold-down time, measured in seconds, before the next update.

19. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator successfully pings R1 from R3. Next, the administrator runs the show cdp neighbors command on R3. The output of this command is displayed.What are two reasons for the absence of R1 in the output? (Choose two.)
• There is a Layer 2 connectivity problem between R1 and R3.
• The Fa0/0 interface of R1 is configured with an incorrect IP address.
• The no cdp run command has been run at R1.
• The no cdp enable command has been run at Fa0/1 interface of R3.R1 is powered off.

20. Refer to the exhibit. A device is required to complete the connection between router R1 and the WAN. Which two devices can be used for this? (Choose two.)
• a CSU/DSU device
• a modem
• an Ethernet switch
• a hub
• a bridge

21. In a complex lab test environment, a router has discovered four paths to 192.168.1.0/24 via the use of the RIP routing process. Which route will be installed in the routing table after the discovery of all four paths?
• R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.110.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/1/0
• R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/0/0
• R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.100.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/0/1
• R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/4] via 192.168.101.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/1/1

22. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator accesses router R1 from the console port to configure a newly connected interface. What passwords will the network administrator need to enter to make the connection and the necessary configuration changes?
• the Cisco123 password only
• the Cisco789 password only
• the Cisco001 password only
• the Cisco001 password and the Cisco789 passwords
• the Cisco001 password and the Cisco123 passwords

23. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator adds this command to router R1: ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 S0/0/0. What is the result of adding this command?
• This route is automatically propagated throughout the network.
• The traffic for network 172.16.1.0 is forwarded to network 192.168.2.0.
• A static route is established.
• The traffic for all Class C networks is forwarded to 172.16.1.2.

24. Refer to the exhibit. The router receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.5.79. How will the router handle this packet?
• It will forward the packet via the Serial0/0/1 interface.
• It will forward the packet via the FastEthernet0/0 interface.
• It will forward the packet via the Serial0/0/0 interface.
• It will drop the packet.

25. Which two statements are true about classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• They can be used for discontiguous subnets.
• They can forward supernet routes in routing updates.
• They cannot implement classful routes in routing tables.
• They use only a hop count metric.
• They do not include the subnet mask in routing updates.

26. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are child routes?
• 1
• 3
• 4
• 6

27. A router has EIGRP configured as the only routing protocol. In what two ways does EIGRP respond if there is no feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route fails? (Choose two.)
• It broadcasts hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.
• It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until a new successor route is found.
• It immediately sends its entire routing table to its neighbors.
• It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until the lost route is unknown to the neighbors.
• It automatically forwards traffic to a fallback default route until a successor route is found.

28. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
• 10.0.0.0/8
• 64.100.0.0/16
• 128.107.0.0/16
• 172.16.40.0/24
• 192.168.1.0/24
• 192.168.2.0/24

29. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
• The administrative distance of EIGRP has been set to 50.
• All routes are stable.
• The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1.
• The serial interface between the two routers is down.
• Each route has one feasible successor.

30. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are properly configured with default configurations and are running the OSPF routing protocol. The network is fully converged. A host on the 192.168.3.0/24 network is communicating with a host on the 192.168.2.0/24 network. Which path will be used to transmit the data?
• The data will be transmitted via R3-R2.
• The data will be transmitted via R3-R1-R2.
• The traffic will be load-balanced between two paths — one via R3-R2, and the other via R3-R1-R2.
• The data will be transmitted via R3-R2, and the other path via R3-R1-R2 will be retained as the backup path.

31. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
• A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
• B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64
• A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32
• B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
• A(config)# no router rip

32. Refer to the exhibit. The hosts on the R1 LAN are unable to access the Internet. What is incorrectly configured?
• the IP address of the Fa 0/0 interface at R1
• the IP address of the S 0/0/1 interface at R2
• the IP address of the S 0/0/0 interface at R1
• the subnet mask of the S 0/0/1 interface at R2

33. Refer to the exhibit. A ping from R1 to 10.1.1.2 is successful, but a ping from R1 to 192.168.2.0 fails. What is the cause of this problem?
• There is no gateway of last resort at R1.
• The serial interface between the two routers is down.
• A default route is not configured on R1.
• The static route for 192.168.2.0 is incorrectly configured.

34. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has run the show ip protocol command on R1. What can be determined from the exhibited output?
• The router is using RIPv2.
• The router is not forwarding routing updates.
• The router is receiving updates for both versions of RIP.
• The FastEthernet0/0 interface is down.

35. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured to use the EIGRP routing protocol with default settings, all routes are advertised on all routers, and the network is fully converged. Which path will the data take to travel between 172.16.1.0/24 and 192.168.100.0/24?
• It will travel via A, B, and C.
• It will travel via A, F, E, D, and C.
• It will travel via A, G, H, and C.
• The traffic will be load-balanced on all paths.

36. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured for OSPF area 0. The network administrator requires that R2 always be the DR and maintain adjacency.Which two configurations can achieve this? (Choose two.)
• Change the OSPF area of R2 to a higher value.
• Change the router ID for R2 by assigning the IP address 172.16.30.5/24 to the Fa0/0 interface.
• Change the priority values of the Fa0/0 interfaces of R1 and R3 to 0.
• Configure a loopback interface on R2, with an IP address higher than any IPaddress on the other routers.
• Configure R1 and R3 with an IP address whose value is higher than that of R2.

37. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to access the Internet, and troubleshooting has revealed that this is due to an addressing problem. What is incorrectly configured in this network?
• the IP address of the Fa 0/0 interface of R1
• the subnet mask of the S 0/0/0 interface of R1
• the IP address of the S 0/0/0 interface of R1
• the subnet mask of the S0/0/0 interface of R2

38. Refer to the exhibit. All routes are advertised and fully operational on all routers. Which statement is true about the path that the data will take from router A to router B?
• If EIGRP is used with default configurations, the data will be equally distributed between two paths — A, D, B and A, C, D.
• If RIPv1 is used with default configurations, the data will be load-balanced on all paths.
• If EIGRP and OSPF are both used with default configurations, the data will be sent through paths learned by the OSPF protocol.
• If RIPv2 is used with default configurations, the data will be equally distributed between two paths — A, D, B and A, C, D.

39. Refer to the exhibit. The interfaces of all routers are configured for OSPF area 0. R3 can ping R1, but the two routers are unable to establish a neighbor adjacency. What should the network administrator do to troubleshoot this problem?
• Check if the interfaces of the routers are enabled.
• Check the hello and dead intervals between the routers.
• Check the process ID of both routers.
• Check if CDP is enabled on all the routers.

40. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the highlighted output?
• R1 is originating the route 172.30.200.32/28.
• Automatic summarization is disabled.
• The 172.30.200.16/28 network is one hop away from R1.
• A classful routing protocol is being used.

41. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
• DRAM -loads the bootstrap
• RAM -stores the operating system
• Flash -executes diagnostics at bootup
• NVRAM -stores the configuration file
• ROM -stores the backup configuration file
• POST -runs diagnostics on hardware modules

42. Which routing protocol by default uses bandwidth and delay to calculate the metric of a route?
• RIPv1
• RIPv2
• OSPF
• EIGRP

43. Two routers need to be configured within a single OSPF area. Which two components need to be configured on both routers to achieve this? (Choose two.)
• the same process ID
• the same area ID
• network addresses and wildcard masks
• the same router ID
• the same loop back address

44. Refer to the exhibit. The networks that are connected to R1 have been summarized for R2 as 192.168.136.0/21. Which packet destination address will R2 forward to R1?
• 192.168.135.1
• 192.168.142.1
• 192.168.144.1
• 192.168.128.1

45. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is running RIP with default parameters. R1 has learned four different paths with the same metrics to network 192.168.6.0. Which path or paths will R1 use to forward a packet that is destined to 192.168.6.10?
• the first path that the router learned.
• only the first two of the four paths that the router learned.
• the last path that the router learned.
• all four paths.

46. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)
• It connects multiple IP networks.
• It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
• It determines the best path to send packets.
• It manages the VLAN database.
• It increases the size of the broadcast domain.

47. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the routing process for this network?
• A packet leaves interface Fa0/0 of R1 with the source MAC address as 000C.3010.9260.
• The packet leaves interface Fa0/0 of R1 with the source MAC address as 000C.3010.9260.
• The no shutdown command needs to run on the Fa0/0 interface of R1.
• The Fa0/0 interface of R2 could be configured with the IP address 172.16.4.1/24.

48. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has run the show interface command. The output of this command is displayed. What is the first step that is required to make this interface operational?
• Switch the cable with a known working cable.
• Issue the no shutdown command on the interface.
• Configure the interface as a loopback interface.
• Set the encapsulation for the interface.

49. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured properly for a single area OSPF, and R2 has been recently installed in the network. Which set of commands is required to configure a single area OSPF for the networks that are connected to R2?
• R2(config)# router ospf 1
R2(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R2(config-router)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
• R2(config)# router ospf 1
R2(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R2(config)# router ospf 2
R2(config-router)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
• R2(config)# router ospf 1
R2(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R2(config-router)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 1
• R2(config)# router ospf 1
R2(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R2(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 1

50. Refer to the exhibit. The command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0 is run on router R2. What are the two results of this command? (Choose two.)
• A static route will be updated in the routing table.
• The traffic from the Internet will be directed to R2.
• The traffic from the source network 172.16.0.0/22 will be blocked.
• The route will be specified as the default route for all networks not defined in the routing table.
• All the broadcasts will be forwarded via the S0/0/0 interface of R2.

51. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
• The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
• The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.
• The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
• The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
• The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.
• The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.

52. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
• The routers must elect a designated router.
• The routers must agree on the network type.
• The routers must use the same dead interval.
• The routers must exchange link state requests.
• The routers must exchange database description packets.

53. Refer to the exhibit. Although both the routers can ping the serial interface of their neighbors, they are unable to ping the Ethernet interfaces of other routers. Which two statements are true for this network? (Choose two.)
• The administrative distance has been set to 50 on both routers.
• R2 is learning about network 192.168.1.0.
• R1 is learning about network 192.168.2.0.
• The network 10.1.1.0 command has not been run on both routers.
• Autosummarization is enabled on both routers.

54. Which two situations require the use of a link-state protocol? (Choose two.)
• Fast convergence of the network is critical.
• The network is very large.
• The network administrator has limited knowledge to configure and troubleshoot routing protocols.The network is a flat network.
• The capacity of the router is low.

55. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the displayed output?
• EIGRP packets are waiting to be sent to the neighbors.
• The adjacencies between the routers are yet to be established.
• The IP address 192.168.10.10 is configured at serial interface S0/0/1 of router R2.
• Router R2 is receiving hello packets from a neighbor with the IP address 192.168.10.10 via the R2 S0/0/1 interface.

56. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is unable to access the Internet. What is the cause of the problem?
• An incorrect IP address is configured between the two routers.
• No static route is configured on Router2.
• A routing loop has occurred.
• No routing protocol is configured on either of the two routers.

57. Refer to the exhibit. What summarization should R2 use to advertise its LAN networks to R1?
• 172.16.0.0/24
• 172.16.4.0/22
• 172.16.4.0/23
• 172.16.4.0/24

CCNA 2 - Final Exam Answers V4.0 (B)

2009-08-11T19:30:00.002-07:00

1. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26?
• The packet will be dropped
• The packet will be forwarded to the gateway of last resort.
• The packet will match the 192.168.0.0 network and be forwarded out Serial 0/0.
• The packet will most closely match the 192.168.0.8 subnet and be forwarded out Serial 0/1.

2. Which three statements are true of holddown timers? (Choose three.)
• used by link state routing protocols to prevent routing loops
• prevent update messages from reinstating a route that may have gone bad
• allow routers to still forward packets to destination networks that are in holddown
• limit the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded
• prevent a router advertising a network through the same interface from which the network was learned
• permit lower metric updates received from any neighboring router to reinstate the route to a possibly down Network

3. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0?
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
• *R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0

4. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router?
• The JAX router has the wrong process ID.
• The JAX router needs the network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
• The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
• The BOS router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which path will traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network take to get to the 10.0.0.0/24 network?
• ADC
• ABC
• It will load balance the traffic between ADC and ABC
• It will send the traffic via ABC, and will use ADC as a backup path only when ABC fails.

6. Refer to the exhibit. Pings are failing between HostA and HostB. The network administrator discovers that Router1 does not have a route to the 172.16.0.0 network. Assuming Router2 is configured correctly, which two static routes could be configured on Router1 to enable Host A to reach network 172.16.0.0? (Choose two.)
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.1
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2
• ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
• ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1

7. What can be determined from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
• Annapolis is a 2611 router that is connected to the S0/0 interface of the Montgomery router.
• All of the routers are connected to Montgomery through an Ethernet switch.
• Montgomery has Layer 2 connectivity with Cumberland.
• Layer 3 connectivity is operational for all of the devices listed in the Device ID column.
• An administrator consoled into the Waldorf router can ping the Brant router.
• Brant, Fisherman, and Potomac are directly connected to Montgomery.

8. Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table?
• Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths.
• The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
• The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
• The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.
• The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.

9. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• They do not work well in networks that require special heirarchical designs.
• They are aware of the complete network topology.
• They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only.
• They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.
• They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path.
• They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates.

10. A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the other routers in the OSPF area?
• Router_A(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
• Router_B(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
• Router_A(config-router)# default-information originate
• Router_B(config-router)# default-information originate
• Router_A(config-router)# ip ospf update-default
• Router_B(config-router)# ip ospf update-default

11. Refer to the exhibit. What are the effects of the exhibited commands on the router?
All passwords are encrypted.
• Only Telnet sessions are encrypted.
• Only the enable password is encrypted.
• Only the enable password and Telnet session are encrypted.
• Enable and console passwords are encrypted.

12. When presented with multiple valid routes to a destination, what criteria does a router use to determine which routes to add to the routing table?
• The router selects the routes with the best metric. All routes that have the same best metric are added to the routing table.
• The router first selects routes with the lowest administrative distance. The resulting routes are then prioritized by metric and the routes with the best metric are added to the routing table.
• The router selects the routes with the lowest administrative distance. All routes with the same lowest administrative distance are added to the routing table.
• The router installs all routes in the routing table but uses the route with the best metric most when load balancing.

13. Which statement is true regarding routing metrics?
• All routing protocols use the same metrics.
• EIGRP uses bandwidth as its only metric.
• Routers compare metrics to determine the best route.
• The larger metric generally represents the better path.

14. A router has learned about a network through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach network 192.168.168.0?
• D 192.168.168.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Ethernet0
• O 192.168.168.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:22, Ethernet0
• R 192.168.168.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Ethernet0
• S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1

15. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
• The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
• The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.
• The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
• The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
• The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.
• The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.

16. When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from Router C, which devices will be displayed in the output?
• D, SWH-2
• A, B, D
• SWH-1, SWH-2
• B, D
• SWH-1, A, B
• A, B, D, SWH-1, SWH-2

17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to determine why router JAX has no OSPF routes in its routing table. All routers are configured for OSPF area 0. From the JAX router, the administrator is able to ping its connected interfaces and the Fa0/1 interface of the ORL router but no other router interfaces. What is a logical step that the network administrator should take to troubleshoot the problem?
• Reboot the routers.
• Change the OSPF process ID on all of the routers to 0.
• Check to see if the cable is loose between ORL and JAX.
• Check to see if CDP packets are passing between the routers.
• Use show and debug commands to determine if hellos are propagating.

18. Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?
• Perform the POST routine.
• Search for a backup IOS in ROM.
• Load the bootstrap program from ROM.
• Load the running-config file from RAM.
• Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.

19. Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1?
• 172.16.0.0/8
• 172.16.0.0/10
• 172.16.0.0/13
• 172.16.0.0/20
• 172.16.0.0/24

20. The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology?
• The address assigned to the Ethernet0 interface of Router1 is a broadcast address for that subnetwork.
• The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork
assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.
• The subnetwork assigned to the Serial0 interface of Router1 is on a different subnetwork from the address for
Serial0 of Router2.
• The subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.

21. Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. • The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause?
• The address is in the wrong subnet.
• 192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet.
• The default gateway is incorrect.
• The host address and default gateway are swapped.

22. Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol. Network 10.0.0.0 goes down. Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this topology will respond to this event?
• Router4 will learn about the failed route 30 seconds later in the next periodic update.
• Split horizon will prevent Router4 from forwarding packets to the 10.0.0.0 network until the holddown timer expires.
• Router5 immediately flushes the unreachable route from its routing table.
• Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10.0.0.0.

23. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)
• The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160.
• Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0.
• The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.
• Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
• Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route.
• No default route has been configured.

24. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router R1?
• 198.18.0.0/16
• 198.18.48.0/21
• 198.18.32.0/22
• 198.18.48.0/23
• 198.18.49.0/23
• 198.18.52.0/22

25. What is the purpose of the TTL field within an IP packet header?
• clears an unreachable route from the routing table after the invalid timer expires
• prevents regular update messages from inappropriately reinstating a route that may have gone bad
• removes an unreachable route from the routing table after the flush timer expires
• limits the period of time or number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be
discarded
• used to mark the route as unreachable in a routing update that is sent to other routers

26. Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.)
• Paris(config)# router eigrp 100
• Paris(config)# router eigrp
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.6.0
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.9.0

27. What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network?
• It reduces the update timer to 15 seconds if there are more then 10 routes.
• It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic updates.
• It uses random pings to detect if a pathway is down and therefore is preemptive on finding networks that
are down.
• It uses multicast instead of broadcast to send routing updates.

28. Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true based on the output shown? (Choose two.)
• the reported distance to network 172.16.1.0 is 2172416
• 192.168.10.5 and 192.168.10.9 are feasible successors
• neighbors 192.168.10.9 and 192.168.10.5 have auto summary disabled
• router 3 is load balancing traffic to the 172.16.3.0 network across its serial interfaces
• all interfaces shown on Router3 are in the passive state and will not send EIGRP advertisements

29. Refer to the exhibit. The network is using the RIPv2 routing protocol. If network 10.0.0.0 goes down, what mechanism will prevent Router1 from advertising false routing information back to Router2?
• triggered updates
• poison reverse
• holddown timers
• split horizon

30. What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet?
• used to confirm receipt of certain types of OSPF packets
• used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers
• used to request more information about any entry in the BDR
• used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests

31. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
• The router chooses the first path that it learned and installs only that route in the routing table.
• The router chooses the path with the lowest administrative distance and installs only that route in the routing table.
• The router chooses the highest routing ID based on the advertised network IP addresses and installs only that
route in the routing table.
• The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table but sends packets out only one, holding the others
in reserve in case the primary route goes down.
• The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send
packets out multiple exit interfaces.

32. Refer to the exhibit. A packet enters Router1 with a destination IP of 172.16.28.121. Which routing table entry will be used to forward this packet to the destination address?
• 172.16.0.0/16 [1/0] via 192.168.0.1
• 172.16.0.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.9
• 172.16.16.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.17
• 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1

33. Refer to the exhibit. Routers 1 and 2 are directly connected over a serial link. Pings are failing between the two routers. What change by the administrator will correct the problem?
• Set the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.
• Decrease the bandwidth on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 1544.
• Change the cable that connects the routers to a crossover cable.
• Change the IP address on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 192.168.0.1/30.

34. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
• DRAM - loads the bootstrap
• RAM - stores the operating system
• Flash - executes diagnostics at bootup
• NVRAM - stores the configuration file
• ROM - stores the backup configuration file
• POST - runs diagnostics on hardware modules

35. The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command.
How will this route appear in the routing table?
• C 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
• S 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
• C 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
• S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2

36. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are both level 1 and qualify for use as an ultimate route?
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 6

37. Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A?
• All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table.
• Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table.
• The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured.
• A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the networks.

38. Which three statements about routing protocols are true? (Choose three.)
• OSPF elects designated routers on multiaccess links.
• RIP does not support classless routing.
• EIGRP supports unequal cost load balancing.
• EIGRP uses broadcast traffic to establish adjacencies with its neighbors.
• RIP does not advertise a route beyond a hop count of 15.
• OSPF can convergence more quickly because it can find a feasible successor in its topology table when a successor route goes down.

39. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1?
• The Dijkstra algorithm will calculate the feasible successor.
• DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0.
• Neighbor 172.16.3.2 will be promoted to the feasible successor.
• Traffic destined to the 192.168.1.0 network will be dropped immediately due to lack of a feasible successor.

40. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?
• Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps.
• The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boudaries and should be summarized.
• The static route will not work correctly.
• *Packets routed to the R2 ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.

41. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
• A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
• B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64
• A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32
• B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
A(config)# no router rip

42. Which of the following could describe the devices labeled "?" in the graphic? (Choose three.)
• DCE
• CSU/DSU
• LAN switch
• modem
• hub

43. Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? Choose three.)
• network address
• loopback address
• autonomous system number
• subnet mask
• wildcard mask
• area ID

44. The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly addressed. However, when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to destination address 172.29.198.5, it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this result?
• The ip classless command is not enabled on the Richmond router.
• The route was ignored if the Richmond router did not include the 172.29.198.0/24 network in its routing updates.
• The Richmond router is in a different autonomous system than the Suffolk router.
• The ip subnet-zero command was not configured on the Suffolk router.
• The ip classless command is not enabled on the Suffolk router.

45. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router
commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
• The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route.
• The missing information for Blank 1 is the command debug ip route.
• The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 100.
• The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120.
• The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter R.
• The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C.

46. Refer to exhibit. A company network engineer enters the following commands in the routers:
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
When the engineer enters the show ip route command on R1, the routing table does not display the static route
to the 10.1.1.0 network. All R1 and R2 interfaces are correctly addressed per the graphic. What is a logical next
step that the engineer could take in order to make the static route display in the routing table in R1?
• Enter default routes in R1 and R2.
• Enable the R1 and R2 serial interfaces.
• Configure the static route to use an exit interface instead of a next-hop address.
• Enter the copy run start command to force the router to recognize the configuration.

47. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the tracert command from host A to host B. Given the exhibited output on host A, what are two possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two.)
• Router1 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
• Router1 is missing a route to the 192.168.1.0 network
• Router2 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network
• Router2 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
• Router3 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network
• Router3 is missing a route to the 192.168.0.0 network

48. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency?Choose two.)
• The routers must elect a designated router.
• The routers must agree on the network type.
• The routers must use the same dead interval.
• The routers must exchange link state requests.
• The routers must exchange database description packets.

49. Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 192?
• It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates the number of hops in the network.
• It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
• It is the metric, which is cost.
• It is the administrative distance.

50. Refer to the exhibit. The results of the show ip route command are displayed in the graphic for Router R2. Which route will be selected for a packet with a destination address of 10.1.4.1?
• static route to 10.1.0.0/22
• RIP route to 10.1.0.0/23
• RIP route to 10.1.0.0/24
• 0.0.0.0/0 via 192.168.0.1

51. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
• 10.0.0.0/8
• 64.100.0.0/16
• 128.107.0.0/16
• 172.16.40.0/24
• 192.168.1.0/24
• 192.168.2.0/24

52. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
• packet switching
• microsegmentation
• domain name resolution
• path selection
• flow control

53. What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.)
• tests Layer 2 connectivity
• provides a layer of security
• operates a OSI layers 2 and 3
• enabled by default on each interface
• used for debugging Layer 4 connectivity issues
• provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled

54Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are running RIPv2 and EIGRP with default routing protocol settings and have interfaces configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Which protocol will be used and how will traffic between the Router1 LAN and Router5 LAN be routed through the network?
• RIPv2 will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5.
• EIGRP will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5.
• RIPv2 traffic will use the path Router1, Router2, Router5 because it has the least hops.
• EIGRP traffic will use the path Router1, Router3, Router4, Router5 because it has the best metric.

55. Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.)
• As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table.
• If the feasible successor has a higher advertised cost than the current successor route, then it becomes the primary route.
• If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology.
• The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor.
• EIGRP maintains full knowledge of the network topology in the topology table and exchanges full routing information with neighboring routers in every update.
• EIGRP builds one routing table that contains routes for all configured routed protocols.

56. Which of the following should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose three.)
• OSPF interval timers mismatch
• gateway of last resort not redistributed
• interface network type mismatch
• no loopback interface configured
• administrative distance mismatch
• inconsistent authentication configuration

57. What is the first step OSPF and IS-IS routers take in building a shortest path first database?
• learn about directly connected networks
• send hello to discover neighbors and form adjacencies
• choose successors and feasible successors to populate the topology table
• flood LSPs to all neighbors informing them of all known networks and their link states

CCNA 2 - Final Exam Answers V4.0 (A)

2009-08-11T19:30:00.001-07:00

1. Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause?
• The address is in the wrong subnet.
• 192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet.
• The default gateway is incorrect.
• The host address and default gateway are swapped.

2. Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 192?
• It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates the number of hops in the network.
• It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
• It is the metric, which is cost.
• It is the administrative distance.

3. Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.)
• Paris(config)# router eigrp 100
• Paris(config)# router eigrp
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.6.0
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.9.0

4. What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.)
• tests Layer 2 connectivity
• provides a layer of security
• operates a OSI layers 2 and 3
• enabled by default on each interface
• used for debugging Layer 4 connectivity issues
• provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled

5. Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true based on the output shown? (Choose two.)
• the reported distance to network 172.16.1.0 is 2172416
• 192.168.10.5 and 192.168.10.9 are feasible successors
• neighbors 192.168.10.9 and 192.168.10.5 have auto summary disabled.
• router 3 is load balancing traffic to the 172.16.3.0 network across its serial interfaces.
• all interfaces shown on Router3 are in the passive state and will not send EIGRP advertisements

6. Which of the following should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose three.)
• OSPF interval timers mismatch
• gateway of last resort not redistributed
• interface network type mismatch
• no loopback interface configured
• administrative distance mismatch
• inconsistent authentication configuration

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)
• The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160.
• Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0.
• The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.
• Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
• Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route.
• No default route has been configured.

8. Refer to the exhibit. The ORL router is unable to form a neighbor relationship with the JAX router. What is a possible cause of this problem?
• Router JAX has the wrong autonomous-system number.
• The command network 192.168.2.0 is missing from the EIGRP configuration on the JAX router.
• Automatic summarization is not disabled on the JAX router.
• Router JAX has the wrong IP address on the Fa0/1 interface.

9. Which statement is true regarding routing metrics?
• All routing protocols use the same metrics.
• EIGRP uses bandwidth as its only metric.
• Routers compare metrics to determine the best route.
• The larger metric generally represents the better path.

10. Which three statements are true of holddown timers? (Choose three.)
• used by link state routing protocols to prevent routing loops
• prevent update messages from reinstating a route that may have gone bad
• allow routers to still forward packets to destination networks that are in holddown
• limit the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded
• prevent a router advertising a network through the same interface from which the network was learned
permit lower metric updates received from any neighboring router to reinstate the route to a possibly down network

11. A router has learned about a network through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach network 192.168.168.0?
• D 192.168.168.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Ethernet0
• O 192.168.168.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:22, Ethernet0
• R 192.168.168.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Ethernet0
• S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1

12. The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly addressed. However, when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to destination address 172.29.198.5, it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this result?
• The ip classless command is not enabled on the Richmond router.
• The route was ignored if the Richmond router did not include the 172.29.198.0/24 network in its routing updates.
• The Richmond router is in a different autonomous system than the Suffolk router.
• The ip subnet-zero command was not configured on the Suffolk router.
• The ip classless command is not enabled on the Suffolk router.

13. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
• The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
• The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.
• The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
• The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
• The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.
• The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.

14. Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? (Choose three.)
• network address
• loopback address
• autonomous system number
• subnet mask
• wildcard mask
• area ID

15. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
• The router chooses the first path that it learned and installs only that route in the routing table.
• The router chooses the path with the lowest administrative distance and installs only that route in the routing table.
• The router chooses the highest routing ID based on the advertised network IP addresses and installs only that route in the routing table.
• The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table but sends packets out only one, holding the others in reserve in case the primary route goes down.
• The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send packets out multiple exit interfaces.

16. Which of the following could describe the devices labeled "?" in the graphic? (Choose three.)
• DCE
• CSU/DSU
• LAN switch
• Modem
• hub

17. Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.)
• As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table.
• If the feasible successor has a higher advertised cost than the current successor route, then it becomes the primary route.
• If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology.
• The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor.
• EIGRP maintains full knowledge of the network topology in the topology table and exchanges full routing information with neighboring routers in every update.
• EIGRP builds one routing table that contains routes for all configured routed protocols.

18. The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology?
• The address assigned to the Ethernet0 interface of Router1 is a broadcast address for that subnetwork.
• The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.
• The subnetwork assigned to the Serial0 interface of Router1 is on a different subnetwork from the address for Serial0 of Router2.
• The subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
• 10.0.0.0/8
• 64.100.0.0/16
• 128.107.0.0/16
• 172.16.40.0/24
• 192.168.1.0/24
• 192.168.2.0/24

20. Refer to exhibit. A company network engineer enters the following commands in the routers:R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1When the engineer enters the show ip route command on R1, the routing table does not display the static route to the 10.1.1.0 network. All R1 and R2 interfaces are correctly addressed per the graphic. What is a logical next step that the engineer could take in order to make the static route display in the routing table in R1?
• Enter default routes in R1 and R2.
• Enable the R1 and R2 serial interfaces.
• Configure the static route to use an exit interface instead of a next-hop address.
• Enter the copy run start command to force the router to recognize the configuration.

21. When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from Router C, which devices will be displayed in the output?
• D, SWH-2
• A, B, D
• SWH-1, SWH-2
• B, D
• SWH-1, A, B
• A, B, D, SWH-1, SWH-2

22. Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table?
• Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths.
• The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
• The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
• The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.
• The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.

23. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
• A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
• B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64
• A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32
• B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
• A(config)# no router rip

24. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the tracert command from host A to host B. Given the exhibited output on host A, what are two possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two.)
• Router1 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
• Router1 is missing a route to the 192.168.1.0 network
• Router2 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network
• Router2 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
• Router3 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network
• Router3 is missing a route to the 192.168.0.0 network

25. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1?
• The Dijkstra algorithm will calculate the feasible successor.
• DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0.
• Neighbor 172.16.3.2 will be promoted to the feasible successor.
• Traffic destined to the 192.168.1.0 network will be dropped immediately due to lack of a feasible successor.

26. Refer to the exhibit. Pings are failing between HostA and HostB. The network administrator discovers that Router1 does not have a route to the 172.16.0.0 network. Assuming Router2 is configured correctly, which two static routes could be configured on Router1 to enable Host A to reach network 172.16.0.0? (Choose two.)
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.1
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2
• ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
• ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1

27. Refer to the exhibit. The results of the show ip route command are displayed in the graphic for Router R2. Which route will be selected for a packet with a destination address of 10.1.4.1?
• static route to 10.1.0.0/22
• RIP route to 10.1.0.0/23
• RIP route to 10.1.0.0/24
• 0.0.0.0/0 via 192.168.0.1

28. Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol. Network 10.0.0.0 goes down. Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this topology will respond to this event?
• Router4 will learn about the failed route 30 seconds later in the next periodic update.
• Split horizon will prevent Router4 from fowarding packets to the 10.0.0.0 network until the holddown timer expires.
• Router5 immediately flushes the unreachable route from its routing table.
• Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10.0.0.0.

29. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
• The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route.
• The missing information for Blank 1 is the command debug ip route.
• The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 100.
• The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120.
• The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter R.
• The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C.

30. A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the other routers in the OSPF area?
• Router_A(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
• Router_B(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
• Router_A(config-router)# default-information originate
• Router_B(config-router)# default-information originate
• Router_A(config-router)# ip ospf update-default
• Router_B(config-router)# ip ospf update-default

31. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26?
• The packet will be dropped.
• The packet will be forwarded to the gateway of last resort.
• The packet will match the 192.168.0.0 network and be forwarded out Serial 0/0.
• The packet will most closely match the 192.168.0.8 subnet and be forwarded out Serial 0/1.

32. Refer to the exhibit. A packet enters Router1 with a destination IP of 172.16.28.121. Which routing table entry will be used to forward this packet to the destination address?
• 172.16.0.0/16 [1/0] via 192.168.0.1
• 172.16.0.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.9
• 172.16.16.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.17
• 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1

33. The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command. How will this route appear in the routing table?
• C 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
• S 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
• C 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
• S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2

34. Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?
• Perform the POST routine.
• Search for a backup IOS in ROM.
• Load the bootstrap program from ROM.
• Load the running-config file from RAM.
• Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.

35. What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network?
• It reduces the update timer to 15 seconds if there are more then 10 routes.
• It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic updates.
• It uses random pings to detect if a pathway is down and therefore is preemptive on finding networks that are down.
• It uses multicast instead of broadcast to send routing updates.

36. Refer to the exhibit. What are the effects of the exhibited commands on the router?
• All passwords are encrypted.
• Only Telnet sessions are encrypted.
• Only the enable password is encrypted.
• Only the enable password and Telnet session are encrypted.
• Enable and console passwords are encrypted.

37. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router R1?
• 198.18.0.0/16
• 198.18.48.0/21
• 198.18.32.0/22
• 198.18.48.0/23
• 198.18.49.0/23
• 198.18.52.0/22

38. Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A?
• All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table.
• Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table.
• The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured.
• A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the networks.

39. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are both level 1 and qualify for use as an ultimate route?
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 6

40. When presented with multiple valid routes to a destination, what criteria does a router use to determine which routes to add to the routing table?
• The router selects the routes with the best metric. All routes that have the same best metric are added to the routing table.
• The router first selects routes with the lowest administrative distance. The resulting routes are then prioritized by metric and the routes with the best metric are added to the routing table.
• The router selects the routes with the lowest administrative distance. All routes with the same lowest administrative distance are added to the routing table.
• The router installs all routes in the routing table but uses the route with the best metric most when load balancing.

41. Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1?
• 172.16.0.0/8
• 172.16.0.0/10
• 172.16.0.0/13
• 172.16.0.0/20
• 172.16.0.0/24

42. What is the purpose of the TTL field within an IP packet header?
• clears an unreachable route from the routing table after the invalid timer expires.
• prevents regular update messages from inappropriately reinstating a route that may have gone bad.
• removes an unreachable route from the routing table after the flush timer expires
• limits the period of time or number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded.
• used to mark the route as unreachable in a routing update that is sent to other routers

43. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router?
• The JAX router has the wrong process ID.
• The JAX router needs the network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
• The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
• The BOS router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.

44. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0?
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0

45. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
• The routers must elect a designated router.
• The routers must agree on the network type.
• The routers must use the same dead interval.
• The routers must exchange link state requests.
• The routers must exchange database description packets

46. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?
• Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps.
• The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boudaries and should be summarized.
• The static route will not work correctly.
• Packets routed to the R2 ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.

47. What can be determined from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
• Annapolis is a 2611 router that is connected to the S0/0 interface of the Montgomery router.
• All of the routers are connected to Montgomery through an Ethernet switch.
• Montgomery has Layer 2 connectivity with Cumberland.
• Layer 3 connectivity is operational for all of the devices listed in the Device ID column.
• An administrator consoled into the Waldorf router can ping the Brant router.
• Brant, Fisherman, and Potomac are directly connected to Montgomery.

48. What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet?
• used to confirm receipt of certain types of OSPF packets
• used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers
• used to request more information about any entry in the BDR
• used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests

50. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are running RIPv2 and EIGRP with default routing protocol settings and have interfaces configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Which protocol will be used and how will traffic between the Router1 LAN and Router5 LAN be routed through the network?
• RIPv2 will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5.
• EIGRP will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5.
• RIPv2 traffic will use the path Router1, Router2, Router5 because it has the least hops.
• EIGRP traffic will use the path Router1, Router3, Router4, Router5 because it has the best metric.

51. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to figure out why BOS does not have the 10.0.0.0/24 network in its routing table. All routers are configured for OSPF in area 0. The links between the routers are operational and the administrator is able to ping between all router interfaces. What is a logical next step that the network administrator should take to troubleshoot the problem?
• Reboot the routers.
• Change the OSPF process ID on all of the routers to 0.
• Check to see if the cable is loose between BOS and JAX.
• Check to see if CDP packets are passing between the routers.
• Use show and debug commands to determine if hellos are propagating.

52. Refer to the exhibit. The network is using the RIPv2 routing protocol. If network 10.0.0.0 goes down, what mechanism will prevent Router1 from advertising false routing information back to Router2?
• triggered updates
• poison reverse
• holddown timers
• split horizon

53. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
• DRAM -loads the bootstrap
• RAM -stores the operating system
• Flash -executes diagnostics at bootup
• NVRAM -stores the configuration file
• ROM -stores the backup configuration file
• POST -runs diagnostics on hardware modules

54. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
• packet switching
• microsegmentation
• domain name resolution
• path selection
• flow control

55. Refer to the exhibit. Which path will traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network take to get to the 10.0.0.0/24 network?
• ADC
• ABC
• It will load balance the traffic between ADC and ABC
• It will send the traffic via ABC, and will use ADC as a backup path only when ABC fails.

56. Refer to the exhibit. Routers 1 and 2 are directly connected over a serial link. Pings are failing between the two routers. What change by the administrator will correct the problem?
• Set the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.
• Decrease the bandwidth on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 1544.
• Change the cable that connects the routers to a crossover cable.
• Change the IP address on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 192.168.0.1/30.

57. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• They do not work well in networks that require special heirarchical designs.
• They are aware of the complete network topology.
• They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only.
• They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.
• They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path.
• They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates.

58. Which three statements about routing protocols are true? (Choose three.)
• OSPF elects designated routers on multiaccess links.
• RIP does not support classless routing.
• EIGRP supports unequal cost load balancing.
• EIGRP uses broadcast traffic to establish adjacencies with its neighbors.
• RIP does not advertise a route beyond a hop count of 15.
• OSPF can convergence more quickly because it can find a feasible successor in its topology table when a successor route goes down.

CCNA 2 - Module 11 Exam Answers V4.0

2009-08-11T19:29:00.002-07:00

1. Refer to the exhibit. What does the "O*E2" from the "O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.1.1, 00:05:34, Serial0/0" line represent?
• an external OSPF route that will not increment in cost.

2. Refer to the exhibit. What is the cost of the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?
• 1786

3. What three parameters must be indentical between OSPF routers in order to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)
• area id
• hello interval
• network type

4. What does OSPF use to reduce the number of exchanges of routing information in networks where large numbers of neighbors are present? (Choose two.)
• designated router
• backup designated router

5. What does OSPF use to calculate the cost to a destination network?
• bandwidth

6. A fully converged five router OSPF network has been running successfully for several weeks. All configurations have been saved and no static routes are used. If one router looses power and reboots, what information will be in its routing table after the configuration file is loaded but before OSPF has converged?
• Routes for connected networks that are operational will be in the routing table.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Router A is correctly configured for OSPF. Which OSPF configuration statement or set of statements was entered for router B to generate the exhibited routing table?
• B(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which network command or set of sommands will cause OSPF to be enabled to send and receive packets for any R1 interface in the exhibited subnets?
• R1(config-router)# network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0

9. Refer to the exhibit. What does the "2" stand for in the router ospf 2 statement?
• The number 2 identifies this particular instance of OSPF on this router.

10. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have been configured with the interface priorities that are shown. All routers were restarted simultaneously. The results of the DR/BDR election are shown. What can be concluded about this network?
• The highest router ID was most likely determined via an OSPF router-id statement or statements.

11. Refer to the exhibit. What configuration statements would give the results that are shown in the output of the show ip protocols command?
• B(config)# router ospf 1B(config-router)# router-id 192.168.1.5

12. Refer to the exhibit. How many OSPF adjacencies must be formed to build the complete topology if a DR or BDR were not elected in this OSPF network?
• 6

13. What is the default administrative distance for OSPF?
• 110

14. Refer to the exhibit. Routers A, B, C, and D are all running OSPF with default router IDs and OSPF interface priorities. Loopback interfaces are not configured and all interfaces are operational. Router D is the DR and router C is the BDR. What happens immediately after the following commands are entered on router A?
• A(config)# interface fa0/0
A(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255
D will remain the DR. C will remain the BDR.

15. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running OSPF. What cost would JAX put in its routing table for the 10.0.0.0/24 network?
• 1787

16. What range of networks will be advertised in the OSPF updates by the command Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 100?
• 192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.15.0/24

17. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to set the router ID of Router1 to 192.168.100.1. What steps must the administrator take to accomplish this?
• nothing, the router-id of Router1 is already 192.168.100.1

18. Refer to the exhibit. When OSPF is operational in the exhibited network, what neighbor relationship is developed between Router1 and Router2?
• A FULL adjacency is formed.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routers have default interface OSPF priorities and no configured loopback interfaces, what two roles will router B play on each network segment? (Choose two.)
• DR for network 192.168.1.200
• BDR for network 192.168.1.204

20. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running OSPF. The show ip ospf neighbor command reveals no neighbors. What is a possible cause?
• OSPF hello or dead timers do not match

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which command sequence on RouterB will redistribute a gateway of last resort to the other routers in OSPF area 0?
• RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# default-information originate

22. Refer to the exhibit. RouterA, RouterB, and RouterC in the diagram are running OSPF on their Ethernet interfaces. Router D was just added to the network. Routers are configured with the loopback interfaces (Lo 0) that are shown in the exhibit. What happens to the OSPF DR/BDR after RouterD is added to the network?
• There is no change in the DR or BDR until either current DR or BDR goes down.

23. Which two statements describe the use of OSPF DR/BDR elections? (Choose two.)
• Elections are required in broadcast multiaccess networks.
• Elections are required in non-broadcast multiaccess networks.

24. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are using default OSPF configuration settings to advertise all attached networks. If all of the routers start at the same time, what will be the result of the DR and BDR elections for this single area OSPF network? (Choose three.)
• Router A will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.
• HQ will be BDR for 10.4.0.0/16.
• Remote will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.

25. Refer to the exhibit. What must be received between neighbors to prevent the dead time that is shown in the exhibit from reaching zero?
• hello packets

CCNA 2 - Module 10 Exam Answers V4.0

2009-08-11T19:29:00.001-07:00

1. Refer to the exhibit. When Router D is configured to use a link-state routing protocol and is added to the network, what is the first thing that it does to begin learning the network topology?
• It learns about its directly connected networks when its interfaces reach the up state.

2. What two events will cause a link state router to send LSPs to all neighbors? (Choose two.)
• whenever the network topology changes
• upon initial startup of router or routing protocol

3. What is the final step in the link state routing process?
• SPF computes best path to each destination network

4. What two statements correctly describe the link state routing process? (Choose two.)
• each router in the area floods LSPs to all neighborsall routers in the area have identical link state databases.

5. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of information would be seen in an LSP sent from router JAX to router ATL?
• cost of the link

6. What feature do modern link-state protocols provide to minimize processing and memory requirements?
• splitting routing topologies into smaller areas

7. To achieve network convergence, what three steps does each link state router take? (Choose three.)
• build a Link State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link.
• flood the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database.
• construct a complete map of the topology and compute the best path to each destination network.

8. What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?
• updates triggered by network changes

9. Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?
• Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.

10. What are some of the advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)
• Routers have direct knowledge of all links in the network and how they are connected.
• After the inital LSA flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in a topology.

11. Which algorithm is run by link-state routing protocols to calculate the shortest path to destination networks?
• Dijkstra

12. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes the path traffic would take from the 10.0.0.0/24 network to the 192.168.1.0/24 network if a link-state routing protocol was in use?
• BOS -> ORL -> JAX -> ATL because this path is the lowest cost

13. Which database or table must be identical on all link-state routers within an area in order to construct an accurate SPF tree?
• link-state database

14. Which two routing protocols use Dijkstra’s shortest path first algorithm? (Choose two.)
• IS-IS
• OSPF

15. When are link-state packets sent to neighbors?
• when a link goes up or down

16. Refer to the exhibit. What does JAX do with link-state packets from ORL?
• sends out the individual link-state packets out the interface connected to BOS

17. A new network administrator is given the task of selecting an appropriate dynamic routing protocol for a software development company. The company has over 100 routers, uses CIDR and VLSM, requires fast convergence, and uses both Cisco and non-Cisco equipment. Which routing protocol is appropriate for this company?
• OSPF

18. What action does a link-state router take immediately upon receipt of an LSP from a neighboring router?
• floods the LSP to neighbors

19. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers and interfaces are configured to use a link-state routing protocol, from which routers will router D receive hello packets?
• B and C

CCNA 2 - Module 9 Exam Answers V4.0

2009-08-11T19:28:00.001-07:00

1. What two actions will the EIGRP DUAL FSM take if a link to a network goes down? (Choose two.)
• put the route into passive mode
• query neighbors for a new route
• search routing table for a feasible successor
• run the SPF algorithm to find a new successor
• search topology table for a feasible successor

2. Host 192.168.1.66 in the network illustrated is unable to ping host 192.168.1.130. How must EIGRP be configured to
enable connectivity between the two hosts? (Choose two.)
• R1(config-router)# network 192.168.1.128
• R1(config-router)# auto-summary
• R1(config-router)# no auto-summary
• R2(config-router)# no auto-summary
• R2(config-router)# auto-summary
• R2(config-router)# network 192.168.1.64

3. Refer to the exhibit. The company is using EIGRP with an autonomous system number of 10. Pings between
hosts on networks that are connected to router A and those that are connected to router B are successful.
However, users on the 192.168.3.0 network are unable to reach users on the 192.168.1.32 network. What is the
most likely cause of this problem?
• IP classless is enabled and is causing the packet to drop.
• The command network 192.168.1.32 was not issued on router C.
• The routers are not configured in the same EIGRP routing domain.
• Automatic summarization of the networks is causing the subnetted routes to be dropped.

4. What information is maintained in the EIGRP topology database for a destination route? (Choose three.)
• the routing protocol
• the feasible distance of the route
• the highest cost of the route
• the SRTT value for the route
• the route cost as advertised by the neighboring router
• the physical address of the gateway interface

5. On a router running EIGRP, what database would maintain a list of feasible successors?
• routing table
• neighbor table
• topology table
• adjacency table

6. Refer to the exhibit. What is indicated by the P at the beginning of the topology entry?
• the route is in a stable state
• the route is a preferred route
• DUAL is searching for a better route to this destination
• the exit interface is in passive mode and EIGRP advertisements are blocked

7. In the command router eigrp 20, what is the purpose of the number 20?
• specifies the administrative distance for all EIGRP routes
• identifies the autonomous system number this EIGRP process will advertise
• determines what metric is added to all advertised routes
• indicates the number of addresses in the EIGRP routing domain

8. Refer to the exhibit. In the topology table, what do the numbers 3011840 and 3128695 represent?
• the route metric that is applied to those EIGRP routes for this router
• the trustworthiness of the routing information source
• the composite of the hop count and bandwidth to that destination network
• the total metric for that network as advertised by the EIGRP neighbor

9. Which two statements describe characteristics of EIGRP? (Choose two.)
• EIGRP is a distance vector routing protocol.
• EIGRP supports classless routing and VLSM.
• EIGRP is classified as a link-state routing protocol.
• EIGRP uses TCP for reliable delivery of EIGRP update packets.
• With EIGRP, loop-free paths are achieved through the use of hold-down timers.
• EIGRP sends a periodic update every 30 minutes.

10. Refer to the exhibit. Network 192.168.0.0/28 goes down. What type of packet does Router2 immediately send
to Router1 and Router3?
• a query for network 192.168.0.0/28
• an acknowledgment packet to 224.0.0.9
• an update packet that is sent to 255.255.255.255
• a packet that contains the new routing table for R2
• unicast update packets to 192.168.1.1 and 192.168.2.1

11. Refer to the exhibit. Network 192.168.0.0/28 goes down. What type of packet does Router2 immediately send
to Router1 and Router3?
• a query for network 192.168.0.0/28
• an acknowledgment packet to 224.0.0.9
• an update packet that is sent to 255.255.255.255
• a packet that contains the new routing table for R2
• unicast update packets to 192.168.1.1 and 192.168.2.1

12. What administrative distance would a router assign to a default route in EIGRP that is learned from a source
external to the autonomous system?
• 1
• 5
• 70
• 90
• 170
• 190

13. In which of the following tables does the EIGRP DUAL algorithm store the primary route to a destination?
(Choose two.)
• routing
• topology
• neighbor
• path
• shortest path

14. Which of the following types of routes will be denoted by EX in EIGRP routing table entries? (Choose two.)
• routes learned from other routing protocols
• routes learned from any non-adjacent EIGRP routers
• any route with a hop count metric higher than 224
• EIGRP routes that originate in different autonomous systems
• all passive routes in the routing table

15. Which term defines a collection of networks under the administrative control of a single entity that presents a
common routing policy to the Internet?
• autonomous system
• contiguous networks
• process ID
• BGP

16. Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP is the only routing protocol enabled on this network. No static routes are c
on this router. What can be concluded about network 198.18.1.0/24 from the exhibited output?
• A route to network 198.18.1.0/24 is not listed in the routing table.
• Packets that are destined for 198.18.1.0/24 will be forwarded to 198.18.10.6.
• EIGRP will perform equal cost load balancing across two paths when forwarding packets to 198.18

17. The router with interface 172.16.3.2 is a successor for network 198.18.1.0/24.
Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces have been configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the example
Assuming that all routers are using a default configuration of EIGRP as their routing protocol, what
packets take from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
• A,B,E
• A,C,E
• A,D,E
• Packets will load balance across the A,B,E and A,C,E paths.
• Packets will load balance across the A,B,E and A,D,E paths.
• Packets will load balance across the A,C,E and A,D,E paths.

18. By default, which two metrics are used by EIGRP to determine the best path between networks?
• MTU
• load
• delay
• bandwidth
• reliability

19. Which of the following statements describes the bounded updates used by EIGRP?
Bounded updates are sent to all routers within an autonomous system.
• Partial updates are sent only to routers that need the information.
The updates are sent to all routers in the routing table.
Updates are bounded by the routers in the topology table.

20. The show ip eigrp topology command output on a router displays a successor route and a feasible successor
route to network 192.168.1.0/24. In order to reduce processor utilization, what does EIGRP do when the
primary route to this network fails?
• The router sends query packets to all EIGRP neighbors for a better route to network 192.168.1.0/24.
• The DUAL FSM immediately recomputes the algorithm to calculate the next backup route.
• Packets that are destined for network 192.168.1.0/24 are sent out the default gateway instead.
• The backup route to network 192.168.1.0/24 is installed in the routing table.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of show ip eigrp neighbors, what are two possible problems with
adjacencies between Router1 and Router2? (Choose two.)
• The routers are configured with different EIGRP process IDs.
• Automatic summarization was disabled.
• The hello timer for R1 was altered.
• The serial interfaces for both routers are in different networks.
• No feasible successors were found.

22. Refer to the exhibit. This is the debug output from 2 directly connected EIGRP routers. They are not
forming an adjacency. What is the cause?
• one router is a non-cisco router
• they have different autonomous-system numbers
• they are using difference sequence numbers
• they are sending incorrect hello types

23. Refer to the exhibit. Which command will advertise the 192.168.1.64/30 network but not the 192.168.1.32
network on router A?
• network 192.168.1.0
• network 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0
• network 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.3
• network 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.7
• network 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.255

CCNA 2 - Module 8 Exam Answers V4.0

2009-08-11T19:27:00.002-07:00

1. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from this output?
• The router will have to perform recursive lookups to forward a packet destined for 192.168.2.213/24.
• The parent route for these networks was removed from the routing table.
• A route to 192.168.0.0/25 would be classified as a supernet route for the routes listed in the routing table.
• All of the routes listed are network routes.

2. Refer to the exhibit. A packet destined for host 128.107.0.5/16 is processed by the JAX router. After finding the static route in the routing table that matches the destination network for this packet, what does the router do next?
• searches for a default route to forward the packet
• drops the packet since the static route does not have an exit interface
• performs a recursive lookup to find the exit interface used to forward the packet
• sends a request to neighboring routers for the location of the 128.107.0.0 network

3. Refer to the exhibit. What parent network will automatically be included in the routing table when the three subnets are configured on Router1?
• 172.16.0.0/16
• 172.16.0.0/24
• 172.16.0.0/30
• 172.16.1.0/16

4. The following entry is displayed in the routing table:
• R 192.168.8.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.4.1, 00:00:26, Serial0/0/1
• What type of route is this?
• a level 1 parent route
• a level 1 supernet route
• a level 1 ultimate network route
• a level 2 child route
• a level 2 ultimate child route

5. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running IOS version 12.2. What will the network administrator need to do so that packets for unknown child routes of 172.16.0.0/24 will not be dropped?
• issue the ip default-network command
• use a classful routing protocol such as RIPv1
• enable either OSPF or ISIS as the routing protocol
• issue the ip classless command
• do nothing, ip classless is on by default

6. Refer to the exhibit. Router B receives a packet with a destination address of 10.16.1.97. What will router B do?
• drop the packet
• forward the packet via the route to 10.16.1.0
• forward the packet via the route to 10.16.1.64
• use the default route

7. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes in this output qualify for use as ultimate routes?
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 6
• 7
• 8

8. Refer to the exhibit. With the ip classless command issued, what will router R2 do with a packet destined for host 172.16.4.234?
• drop the packet
• send packet out Serial 0/0/1
• send packet to network 0.0.0.0
• send packet out FastEthernet 0/0

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes this network?
• EIGRP is being used
• There is at least one parent and one child route
• 192.168.2.0, 192.168.3.0, and 192.168.4.0 networks are child routes
• Traffic going to 172.16.3.0 will be directed to s 0/0/1

10. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 has been issued the ip classless command. What happens to packets destined to host 172.16.3.10?
• they are dropped
• sent to default gateway
• forward out interface Serial0/0/1
• forward out interface FastEthernet 0/0

11. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has discovered that packets destined for servers on the 172.16.254.0 network are being dropped by Router2. What command should the administrator issue to ensure that these packets are sent out the gateway of last resort, Serial 0/0/1?
• ip classless
• A router has the following entries in its routing table:
• S 192.168.0.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.128.2
• O 192.168.0.0/25 [110/2175] via 172.16.1.1, 00:02:15, FastEthernet0/1
• D 192.168.0.0/25 [90/22455] via 172.16.2.2, 00:12:15, Serial0/0/0
• R 192.168.0.0/26 [120/2] via 172.16.3.3, 00:00:15, Serial0/0/1

12. The router receives a packet that is destined for a host with the address 192.168.0.58. Which route would this router use to forward the packet?
• router use to forward the packet?
• the static route
• the OSPF route
• the EIGRP route
• the RIP route

13.What determines if the router implements a classless route lookup process?
• Child routes are present in the routing table.
• A classless routing protocol has been configured on the router.
• The command ip classless is enabled on the router.
• Multiple routes with different masks to the same destination are in the routing table.
• Routing table entries have a next-hop IP address and an exit interface for each child route.

14. What occurs when no ip classless is implemented on the router?
• The router will only support classful IP addressing.
• The router will only support classful routing protocols.
• The router will use a default route, if present, when a matching route is not found in the routing table.
• The router will assume it has knowledge of all subnets in the network and will not search beyond child
• routes for a better match.

15. Refer to the exhibit. The graphic contains partial contents of the routing table on router E. Router E is running version 12.3 of the IOS and is configured for default routing behavior. Router E receives a packet to forward. Which route in the routing table will be searched first and why?
• 172.16.1.0/25 because it is the first ultimate route
• 0.0.0.0/0 because it is the lowest network number
• 172.16.0.0/25 because it is the first level 1 route
• 172.18.0.0/15 because it has the shortest mask

16. A network is converged and the routing tables are complete. When a packet needs to be forwarded, what is the first criterion used to determine the best path in the routing table?
• the route with the smallest AD
• the route with the longest address and mask match to the destination
• the route with the highest bandwidth
• the route with the best combination of AD and lowest cost

17. Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will Router1 apply to child routes of the 172.16.0.0/24 network?
• 0.0.0.0
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.255

18. Refer to the exhibit. What protocol was used to distribute the routing information for the network 172.16.1.4?
• RIPv1
• RIPv2
• EIGRP
• OSPF

19. A route to a destination network is learned from multiple routing protocols. What is used by a Cisco router to select the preferred route to the destination that will be installed in the routing table?
• metric
• route prefix
• update timer
• administrative distance

CCNA 2 - Module 7 Exam Answers V4.0

2009-08-11T19:27:00.001-07:00

1. A network administrator has been told that the company IP address infrastructure must adhere to RFC 1918. What three IP address ranges from RFC 1918 could the administrator use on the network? (Choose three.)
• 10.0.0.0/8
• 172.16.0.0/12
• 192.168.0.0/16

2. Refer to the exhibit. Routers East and West are configured using RIPv1. Both routers are sending updates about their directly connected routes. The East router can ping the West router serial interface and West can ping the serial interface of East. However, neither router has dynamically learned routes from the other. What is most likely the problem?
• VLSM is not supported by RIPv1.

3. Refer to the exhibit. What effect will the commands that are shown have on RIP updates for Router1?
• Only version 2 updates are sent to 224.0.0.9.

4. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output shown in the exhibit?
• The no auto-summary has not been configured on this router.

5. What are two reasons to implement RIP version 2 rather than RIP version 1? (Choose two.)
• RIP version 2 supports VLSM.
• RIP version 2 supports routing update authentication.

6. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv1 is configured as the routing protocol for the network that is shown. The following commands are used on each router:
• router rip
network 10.0.0.0
network 172.16.0.0

7. A network administrator installed four new routers that are running RIPv2. Router1 is a boundary router in the RIPv2 network and has a default route configured. Once the network has converged, the network administrator enters Router1(config-router)# default-information originate on Router1. How will this affect the network?
• propagates the default route to all routers in the network

8. Refer to the exhibit. A technician needs to add a new loopback interface to test routing functionality and network design. The technician enters the following set of commands on the router:
Sanford(config)# interface loopback1
Sanford(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.62 255.255.255.252
• The network address for Loopback1 overlaps with an already configured interface address.

9. What is the maximum network diameter permitted by the default metric of RIPv2?
• 15 hops
|
10. What are two functions of the network command used when configuring routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• identifies which networks will be included in the routing updates
• determines which interfaces can send and receive routing updates

11. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. What changes will occur in the routing table of router B if a loopback interface with an address of 10.16.1.129/27 is configured on router B?
• A connected route to the 10.16.1.128/27 network is added.

12. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP version 2, why is there no route for the 192.168.1.32/27 network?
• Rip version 2 will auto summarize routes by default.

13. RIPv2 is the configured routing protocol on the routers in a network. The command Router(config-router)# no version 2 is entered on the routers. What effect does entering this command have on routing updates?
• Version 1 and 2 updates will be received and the version 2 updates will not be sent.

14. How are RIP v1 and RIP v2 similar to one another? (Choose three.)
• They both use hop count as a metric.
• They both have the same metric value for infinite distance.
• They both use split horizon to prevent routing loops.

15. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibited network contains a mixture of Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The command debug ip rip was entered on the JAX router. All routers are running the same version of RIP. Router CHI and Router ORL are not able to reach the 192.168.1.16/28 network. What is a possible solution to this problem?
• Configure RIPv2 on routers.

16. What field was added to the RIP message header by RFC 1723 to add support for VLSM and CIDR?
• Subnet mask

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which command on which router will allow Router1 to learn about the 192.168.0.0/20 network?
• Router2(config-router)# version 2

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
• Router1 will install a route to 192.168.0.0/20
• Router2 will not install a route to 192.168.16.0/20

19. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIP version 2. JAX is configured to just advertise the 10.0.0.0/24 network. CHI is configured to advertise the 172.16.0.0/16 network. A network administrator enters the commands shown in the exhibit. What changes will occur in this network?
• The CHI router will install a route to the 192.168.0.0/16 network in its routing table.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Which command will allow Router2 to learn about the 192.168.16.0/28 network?
• Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0

21. When this configuration is complete, users on the LAN of each router are unable to access the remote LANs. Why?
• RIPv1 is unable to route to discontiguous subnets of a major network.

CCNA 2 - Module 6 Exam Answers V4.0

2009-08-11T19:26:00.002-07:00

1. What two advantages does CIDR provide to a network? (Choose two.)
• reduced routing table size
• reduced routing update traffic

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which address is a broadcast address for one of the subnets that are shown in the exhibit?
• 192.168.4.15/29

3. In the network shown in the graphic, three bits were borrowed from the host portion of a Class C address. How many valid host addresses will be unused on the three point-to-point links combined if VLSM is not used?
• 84

4. Which of the following are contained in the routing updates of classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• 32-bit address
• Subnet mask

5. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to create a subnet for the point-to-point connection between the two routers. Which subnetwork mask would provide enough addresses for the point-to-point link with the least number of wasted addresses?
• 255.255.255.252

6. What does VLSM allow a network administrator to do?
• utilize multiple subnet masks in the same IP address space

7. Which three interior routing protocols support VLSM? (Choose three.)
• OSPF
• RIP v2
• EIGRP

8. Which of the following problems does VLSM help to alleviate?
• the shortage of IP addresses

9. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician enters the static route in R1 needed to reach network 10.1.1.0/24. A ping from the S0/0/0 interface on R1 to host B fails. The technician begins testing the network and has the following results:
1. pings from R1 to the S0/0/0 interface on R2....successful
2. pings from R1 to the Fa0/0 interface on R2....successful
3. pings from host B to hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 network....successful
4. pings from host B to the Fa0/0 interface on R2....successful
5. pings from R2 to host B....successful.
What is the likely cause of the failure of the ping from R1 to host B?
• The default gateway on host B is not correctly set.

10. A network administrator is tasked with dividing up a class C network among the QA, Sales, and Administration departments. The QA department is made up of 10 people, the Sales is made up of 28 people, and the Administration has 6. Which two subnets masks adequately address the QA and Sales departments? (Choose two.)
• 255.255.255.224 for Sales
• 255.255.255.240 for QA

11. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is summarizing the two groups of routes on router R1 shown in the exhibit. Which summarization will work for all the subnets?
• 192.168.0.0/21

12. A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using VLSM, which bit mask should be used to provide for the number of host addresses required on Router A, while wasting the fewest addresses?
• /27

13. Refer to the exhibit. In the network that is shown, the router interfaces are assigned the first address in each subnet. Which IP address would be usable for a host on one of the LANs in this network?
• 192.168.2.130/25

14. Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will be applied if Router A sends a RIPv1 update for the network 172.16.1.0 to Router B?
• 24

15. Refer to the exhibit. The number of required host addresses for each subnet in a network is listed in the exhibit. This number includes the host address requirements for all router ports and hosts on that subnet. After all device and router port address assignments are determined, what will be the total number of unused host addresses available?
• 29

16. An additional subnet is required for a new Ethernet link between Router1 and Router2 as shown in the diagram. Which of the following subnet addresses can be configured in this network to provide a maximum of 14 useable addresses for this link while wasting the fewest addresses?
• 192.1.1.224/28

17. What is a supernet?
• a summarization of classful addresses

18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to create two subnetworks from 10.0.0.0/8 for a router running RIPv2. The Admin subnet requires 120 hosts and the Sales subnet requires 58 hosts. The network administrator assigned 10.0.1.128/25 to the Admin subnet. The Sales subnet is given 10.0.1.192/26. What will be the result of this addressing scheme?
• The subnets overlap and will be rejected by the router.

19. A router has a summary route to network 192.168.32.0/20 installed in its routing table. What range of networks are summarized by this route?
• 192.168.32.0 – 192.168.47.0/24

20. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to minimize the number of entries in Router1’s routing table. What should the administrator implement on the network?
• CIDR

CCNA 2 - Module 5 Exam Answers V4.0

2009-08-11T19:26:00.001-07:00

1. Refer to the exhibit. The network that is shown is running RIPv1. The 192.168.10.0/24 network was recently added and will only contain end users. What command or set of commands should be entered on Router1 to prevent RIPv1 updates from being sent to the end user devices on the new network while still allowing this new network to be advertised to other routers?
• Router1(config-router)# no network 192.168.10.0

2. The following line was displayed in the output of the show ip route command.
R 192.168.3.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:30, Serial0/0
What is the value of the routing metric?
• 3

3. Which of the following is considered a limitation of RIP v1?
• RIP v1 does not send subnet mask information in its updates.

4. Refer to the exhibit. The Ethernet interface on Router2 goes down and the administrator notices that the route is still in the Router1 routing table. How much longer will Router1 keep the down network in its routing table before marking it as possibly down?
• 155 seconds

5. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running RIPv1. What command was entered into Router1 to configure the gateway of last resort?
• ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1

6. What are three characteristics of the RIPv1 routing protocol? (Choose three.)
• uses hop count as a metric
• considers a metric of 16 as infinity
• calculates metrics using the Bellman Ford algorithm

7. Which of the following would be the correct command sequence to enable RIP on Router B for all connected networks?
• RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 220.17.29.0

8. What is the default update period in seconds for the RIP routing protocol?
• 30

9. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output of router B?
• The default-information originate command has been entered on A.

10. Refer to the exhibit. A network consists of multiple routers. What can be verified when the show ip protocols command is issued on one of the routers in the network?
• routing protocol configuration in use for IP on this router

11. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured with valid interface addresses in the indicated networks and are running RIPv1. The network is converged. Which routes are present in the routing tables?
• All routers have all /30 routes. Routers A and E also have some of the /24 routes in their routing table.

12. Which two statements are true regarding the characteristics of RIPv1? (Choose two).
• It is a distance vector routing protocol.
• The data portion of a RIP message is encapsulated into a UDP segment.

13. Which command or set of commands will stop the RIP routing process?
• RouterB(config)# no router rip

14. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the exhibit are running RIP v1. The network administrator issues the show ip route command on router A. What routes would appear in the routing table output if the network is converged? (Choose two).
• R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1]
• R 10.10.1.0/24 [120/2]

15. Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?
• debug ip rip

16. Refer to the output from the show ip route command. What can be concluded from the output of this router command?
• There are two equal cost paths to network 1.0.0.0.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running the RIPv1 protocol. The network administrator configures the command network 10.1.0.0 on Router1. What network will Router1 advertise to Router2?
• 10.0.0.0/8

18. Refer to the exhibit. Pings between the serial interfaces of the routers are successful. Hosts on each LAN can ping the Fa0/0 interface of the router to which they are directly connected through the switch. However, pings between hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 networks are unsuccessful. What is a likely cause of this problem?
• RIP is configured incorrectly on R1.

19. What will happen if an interface IP address is entered for the address portion of the network command in a RIPv1 configuration instead of a network address?
• All interfaces in the same classful network as the configured address will be included in the RIPv1 routing process.

20. Refer to the exhibit. All routers that are shown are running the RIP routing protocol. All unknown IP traffic must be forwarded to the ISP. What router or set of routers are recommended to have both a default route and the default-information originate command issued to implement this forwarding policy?
• only the gateway router

CCNA 2 - Module 4 Exam Answers V4.0

2009-08-11T19:25:00.001-07:00

1. Which event will cause a triggered update?
• a route is installed in the routing table

2. Three routers running a distance-vector routing protocol lost all power, including the battery backups. When the routers reload, what will happen?
• They will send updates that include only directly connected routes to their directly connected neighbors.

3. What does the RIP holddown timer do?
• instructs routers to ignore updates, for a specified time or event, about possible inaccessible routes

4. Which two statements are true regarding the function of the RIPv1 routing updates? (Choose two).
• updates are broadcast at regular intervals
• broadcasts are sent to 255.255.255.255

5. Which of the following statements are correct about RIP?
• will send out an update if there is a failure of a link

6. Which two statements describe EIGRP? (Choose two.)
• EIGRP sends triggered updates whenever there is a change in topology that influences the routing information.
• EIGRP sends a partial routing table update, which includes just routes that have been changed.

7. Which statement is true regarding cisco's RIP_JITTER variable?
• It prevents the synchronization of routing updates by subtracting a random length of time ranging from 0% to 15% of the specified interval time from the next routing update interval.

8. What actions will occur after RouterA loses connectivity to network 114.125.16.0? (Choose two.)
• RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterA.
• Router C will learn of the loss of connectivity to network 114.125.16.0 from RouterB

9. Which of the following methods does split horizon use to reduce incorrect routing information?
• Information learned from one source is not distributed back to that source.

10. The graphic shows a network that is configured to use RIP routing protocol. Router2 detects that the link to Router1 has gone down. It then advertises the network for this link with a hop count metric of 16. Which routing loop prevention mechanism is in effect?
• route poisoning

11. What is the purpose of the TTL field in the IP header?
• limits the time or hops that a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded

12. Which of the following can exist in a distance vector network that has not converged? (Choose three.)
• routing loops
• inconsistent traffic forwarding
• inconsistent routing table entries

13. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in this network are running RIP. Router A has not received an update from Router B in over three minutes. How will Router A respond?
• The Invalid timer will mark the route as unusable if an update has not been received in 180 seconds.

14. A network administrator is evaluating RIP versus EIGRP for a new network. The network will be sensitive to congestion and must respond quickly to topology changes. What are two good reasons to choose EIGRP instead of RIP in this case? (Choose two.)
• EIGRP only updates affected neighbors.
• EIGRP updates are partial.

15. Refer to the exhibit. What path will packets from the 192.168.1.0/24 network travel to reach the 10.0.0.0/8 network if RIP is the active routing protocol?
• The path will be router A -> router D -> router E.

16. Which three routing protocols are distance vector routing protocols? (Choose three).
• RIPv1
• EIGRP
• RIPv2

17. What is a routing loop?
• a condition where a packet is constantly transmitted within a series of routers without ever reaching its intended destination

18. Which two conditions are most likely to cause a routing loop? (Choose two.)
• inconsistent routing tables
• incorrectly configured static routes

19. What metric does the RIP routing protocol consider to be infinity?
• 16

20. What does a router running RIP do first with a new route that is received from an advertisement?
• adjusts the metric for the new route to show the added distance for the route

21. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are using RIP, how many rounds of updates will occur before all routers know all networks?
• 3

CCNA 2 - Module 3 Exam Answers V4.0

2009-08-11T19:23:00.000-07:00

1. Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)
• Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.
• Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how R1 will determine the best path to R2?
• R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the administrative distance of EIGRP is lower than RIP.

3. Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• sends subnet mask information in routing updates
• allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology

4. Which command would the network administrator issue to determine if load balancing is in effect on a router?
• show ip route

5. Which statement is true regarding routing protocols?
• EIGRP uses DUAL to calculate the shortest path and can be configured to do unequal cost load balancing.

6. Which two conditions would create a setting where the use of a distance-vector routing protocol would be efficient? (Choose two.)
• the network is using a hub and spoke topology
• the network is using a flat design

7. What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
• It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.

8. Which of the following best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
• hey send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.

9. Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?
• shortest-path first calculations

10. Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
• Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.

11. Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged
• The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge.

12. Which two statements are true regarding metrics? (Choose two.)
• EIGRP uses bandwidth as a metric.
• OSPF uses cost based on bandwidth as a metric.

13. Which two statements are true regarding the advantages of the use of static routes? (Choose two).
• increased security
• the administrator maintains control over routing

14. The following line of code is displayed in a routing table:
R 209.165.201.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.252.2, 00:00:16, S0/0/0
What can be concluded from this output?
• The value, 120, is used to determine the best path when a router has more than one routing protocol configured for the same destination network.

15. What will be the result of the following commands?
ORL(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
ORL(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.1 255.255.255.0
ORL(config-if)# no shutdown
• A routing table entry is made to the 172.16.3.0 network with a code of "C".

16. An engineer creates a static route by entering the Router(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.2 command. What can be concluded about this route?
• The administrative distance of this route is 1.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running EIGRP. All interfaces are operational and packets can be forwarded between all networks. What information will be found in the routing table for Router1?
• The administrative distance of the route to network 172.16.0.0 will be 90.

18. The following line of code is present in the routing table:
O 10.16.1.0/27 [110/129] via 192.168.1.5, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/1
What does the number 129 indicate in this output?
• The cost for this link has a value of 129.

19. A growing medium-sized manufacturing company recently began to have routing instability issues. The company uses static routes and has a mixture of over 30 Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The network administrator has decided to convert the network to dynamic routing. What characteristics of protocols should be considered in this selection process?
• OSPF can be used between the routers.

20. Refer to the exhibit. If RIP is the routing protocol, what is the value of the metric from router A to network 192.168.5.0/24?
• 3

21. A router learns two paths with equal metrics to a destination network via the RIP routing protocol. How will the router handle packets to the destination network?
• The router will install both routes in the routing table and load balance between the two.

CCNA 2 - Module 2 Exam Answers V4.0

2009-07-31T03:52:00.000-07:00

1. A static route that points to the next hop IP will have what administrative distance and metric in the routing table?
• administrative distance of 0 and metric of 0
• administrative distance of 0 and metric of 1
• administrative distance of 1 and metric of 0
• administrative distance of 1 and metric of 1

2. What address can be used to summarize networks 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24, 172.16.3.0/24, and 172.16.4.0/24?
• 172.16.0.0/21
• 172.16.1.0/22
• 172.16.0.0 255.255.255.248
• 172.16.0.0 255.255.252.0

3. The routers in the diagram use the subnet assignments shown. What is the most efficient route summary that can be configured on Router3 to advertise the internal networks to the cloud?
• 192.1.1.0/26 and 192.1.1.64/27
• 192.1.1.128/25
• 192.1.1.0/23 and 192.1.1.64/23
• 192.1.1.0/24
• 192.1.1.0/25
• 192.1.1.0/24 and 192.1.1.64/24

4. Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the /8 in the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?
• It indicates that there are 8 hops between this router and the 10.0.0.0 network.
• It represents the time, in milliseconds, it takes for a ping to reply when sent to the 10.0.0.0 network.
• It indicates that there are 8 subnets in the destination network to which the router can forward packets.
• It indicates the number of consecutive bits, from the left, in the destination IP address of a packet that must match 10.0.0.0 to use that route.

5. Refer to the exhibit. How will packets destined to the 172.16.0.0 network be forwarded?
• Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/0.
• Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/1.
• There is no matching interface associated with network 172.16.0.0 so packets will be dropped.
• There is no matching interface associated with network 172.16.0.0 so packets will take gateway of last resort and exit out S0/2.

6. A network administrator enters the following command into Router1: ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/1/0. Router1 then receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.0.22/24. After finding the recently configured static route in the routing table, what does Router1 do next to process the packet?
• drops the packet because the destination host is not listed in the routing table
• looks up the MAC address of the S0/1/0 interface to determine the destination MAC address of the new frame
• performs a recursive lookup for the IP address of the S0/1/0 interface before forwarding the packet
• encapsulates the packet into a frame for the WAN link and forwards the packet out the S0/1/0 interface

7. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output in the exhibit, how would a clock rate be determined for this link?
• The rate would be negotiated by both routers.
• A rate would not be selected due to the DCE/DTE connection mismatch.
• The rate configured on the DTE determines the clock rate.
• The rate configured on the DCE determines the clock rate.

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands will configure static routes that will allow the WinterPark and the Altamonte routers to deliver packets from each LAN and direct all other traffic to the Internet?
• WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1
Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2
Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1
• WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1
Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2
Altamonte(config)# ip route 198.18.222.0 255.255.255.255 s0/1
• WinterPark(config)# ip route 172.191.67.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.1
• WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1
Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2
• WinterPark(config)# ip route 172.191.67.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.1
Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2
Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0

9. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
• ping
• show arp
• traceroute
• show ip route
• show interface
• show cdp neighbor detail

10. Refer to the exhibit. A company network engineer is assigned to establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks so that hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 subnet can contact hosts on the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet. The engineer has been told to use only static routing for these company routers. Which set of commands will establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks?
• R1(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
R2(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
• R1(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
R2(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
• R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
• R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
• R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.2.1
R2(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1

11. Which of the following are displayed by the Router# show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
• load
• platform
• reliability
• holdtime
• local interface

12. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands are required to provide connectivity between the 192.168.1.0 and 10.0.0.0 networks without requiring recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
• A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/1/0
• A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
• A (config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/0/0
• B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/0/0
• B (config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.40.1
• B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/1/0

13. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the 10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)
• A(config)# no network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
• A(config)# no ip address 10.0.0.1 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
• A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
• A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s0/0/0
• A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

14. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?
• The route is removed from the table.
• The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.
• The route remains in the table because it was defined as static.
• The router redirects the static route to compensate for the loss of the next hop device.

15. A router has one static route to each destination network. Which two scenarios would require an administrator to alter the static routes that are configured on that router? (Choose two.)
• The destination network no longer exists.
• The destination network is moved to a different interface on the same router.
• The path between the source and destination is upgraded with a higher bandwidth link.
• A topology change occurs where the existing next-hop address or exit interface is not accessible.
• The remote destination network interface has to be down for 15 minutes of maintenance.

16. Why is it advisable to enter a next-hop IP address when creating a static route whose exit interface is an Ethernet network?
• Adding the next-hop address eliminates the need for the router to do any lookups in the routing table before forwarding a packet.
• In a multi-access network, the router cannot determine the next-hop MAC address for the Ethernet frame without a next-hop address.
• Using a next-hop address in a static route provides a route with a lower metric.
• In multi-access networks, using a next-hop address in a static route makes that route a candidate default route.

17. The output of the Router# show interfaces serial 0/1 command displays the following:
• Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down.
• What is the most likely cause for the line protocol being down?
• Serial0/1 is shutdown.
• There is no cable connecting the routers.
• The remote router is using serial 0/0.
• No clock rate has been set.

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which static route should be configured on Router1 so that host A will be able to reach host B on the 172.16.0.0 network?
• ip route 192.168.0.0 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.1
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/1
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0

19. What two devices are responsible for converting the data from the WAN service provider into a form acceptable by the router? (Choose two).
• the serial port of the router
• a modem
• a switch
• the ethernet port of the router
• a CSU/DSU device
• a DTE device

20. Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?
• CDP running on Router D will gather information about routers A, B, C, and E.
• By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.
• If routers D and E are running different routing protocols, they will not exchange CDP information.
• Router E can use CDP to identify the IOS running on Router B.

21. Which two statements describe functions or characteristics of CDP? (Choose two.)
• It starts up automatically and allows the device to detect directly connected neighbor devices that use CDP.
• It operates at the network layer and allows two systems to learn about each other.
• It creates a topology map of the entire network.
• It allows systems to learn about each other even if different network layer protocols are configured.
• It forwards advertisements about routes for faster convergence.

22. Which piece of information is available from examining the output of the command show ip interface brief?
• Interface speed and duplex
• Interface MTU
• Errors
• Interface MAC address
• Interface IP address

CCNA 2 - Module 1 Exam Answers V4.0

2009-07-31T03:51:00.000-07:00

1. If a router cannot find a valid configuration file during the startup sequence, what will occur?
• The startup sequence will reset.
• The router will prompt the user for a response to enter setup mode.
• The startup sequence will halt until a valid configuration file is acquired.
• The router will generate a default configuration file based on the last valid configuration.
• The router will monitor local traffic to determine routing protocol configuration requirements.

2. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the router with the interface IP addresses shown for the directly connected networks. Pings from the router to hosts on the connected networks or pings between router interfaces are not working. What is the most likely problem?
• The destination networks do not exist.
• The IP addresses on the router interfaces must be configured as network addresses and not host addresses.
• The interfaces must be enabled with the no shutdown command.
• Each interface must be configured with the clock rate command.

3. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
• This router only has two interfaces.
• The router interfaces are not operational yet.
• This router is configured to forward packets to remote networks.
• The FastEthernet0/0 and Serial0/0/0 interfaces of this router were configured with an IP address and the no shutdown command.
• An IP packet received by this router with a destination address of 198.18.9.1 will be forwarded out of the Serial0/0/0 interface.

4. Refer to the exhibit. The frame shown in the exhibit was received by the router. The router interfaces are operational. How will the router process this frame? (Choose two.)
• The router will change the source and destination IP address in the packet before forwarding the frame.
• The router will change the frame type to one supported by the WAN link before forwarding the frame.
• The router will use the destination MAC address to determine which interface to forward the packet.
• The router will look up the MAC address of the S0/0/0 interface in the ARP table and add it to the frame before forwarding.
• The frame was received on the Fa0/0 interface of the router and will be switched to the S0/0/0 interface.
• The frame was received on the S0/0/0 interface of the router and will be switched to the Fa0/0 interface.

5. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
• VTY interface
• console interface
• Ethernet interface
• secret EXEC mode
• privileged EXEC mode
• router configuration mode

6. Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router? (Choose two.)
• RAM permanently stores the configuration file used during the boot sequence.
• ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.
• NVRAM stores a backup copy of the IOS used during the boot sequence.
• Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot.
• ROM contains the most current and most complete version of the IOS.
• Flash contains boot system commands to identify the location of the IOS

7.Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?
• The subnet mask of host 2 is incorrect.
• Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.
• The switch needs an IP address that is not configured.
• The router LAN interface and host 1 are on different networks.
• The IP address of host 1 is on a different network than is the LAN interface of the router.

8. Which are functions of a router? (Choose three.)
• packet switching
• extension of network segments
• segmentation of broadcast domains
• selection of best path based on logical addressing
• election of best path based on physical addressing

9. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have a route in its routing table to each network that is shown in the exhibit. Default routes have not been issued on these routers. What can be concluded about how packets are forwarded in this network? (Choose two.)
• If RouterC receives a packet that is destined for 10.5.1.1, it will be forwarded out interface Fa0/0.
• If RouterA receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.3.146, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
• If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for 10.5.27.15, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
• If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for 172.20.255.1, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/0.
• If RouterC receives a packet that is destined for 192.16.5.101, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.

10. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
• Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
• Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
• Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
• Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
• Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2

11. Rfer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the running-configuration of a router?
• The passwords are encrypted.
• The current configuration was saved to NVRAM.
• The configuration that is shown will be the one used on the next reboot.
• The commands that are displayed determine the current operation of the router.

12. Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)
• source IP address: 192.168.10.129
• source IP address: BBBB.3333.5677
• destination IP address: 192.168.10.33
• destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
• destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234

13. What is the outcome of entering these commands?
• R1(config)# line vty 0 4
• R1(config-line)# password check123
• R1(config-line)# login
• ensures that a password is entered before entering user EXEC mode
• sets the password to be used for connecting to this router via Telnet
• requires check123 to be entered before the configuration can be saved
• creates a local user account for logging in to a router or switch

14. Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?
• load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration
• load bootstrap, apply configuration, load IOS
• load IOS, load bootstrap, apply configuration, check hardware
• check hardware, apply configuration, load bootstrap, load IOS

15. What three processes does a router execute when it receives a packet from one network that is destined for another network? (Choose three.)
• decapsulates the Layer 3 packet by stripping off the Layer 2 frame header
• uses the destination MAC Address in the IP Header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table
• leaves the Layer 2 frame header intact when decapsulating the Layer 3 packet
• uses the destination IP Address in the IP header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table
• encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into the new Layer 2 frame and forwards it out the exit interface
• encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into a special Layer 1 frame and forwards it to the exit interface

16. The network administrator needs to connect two routers directly via their FastEthernet ports. What cable should the network administrator use?
• straight-through
• rollover
• cross-over
• serial

17. Which two statements describe characteristics of load balancing? (Choose two.)
• Load balancing occurs when a router sends the same packet to different destination networks. Load balancing occurs when a router sends the same packet to different destination networks.
• Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network.
• Unequal cost load balancing is supported by EIGRP.
• If multiple paths with different metrics to a destinations exist, the router cannot support load balancing.

18. What information about the router and its startup process can be gathered from the output of the show version command? (Choose three.)
• the last restart method
• the command buffer contents
• the amount of NVRAM and FLASH used
• the configuration register settings
• the location from where the IOS loaded

19. Which interfaces in the exhibit could be used for a leased line WAN connection? (Choose two.)
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 6

20. From what location can a router load the Cisco IOS during the boot process? (Choose two.)
• RAM
• TFTP server
• NVRAM
• setup routine
• Flash memory
• terminal

21. A network administrator has just entered new configurations into Router1. Which command should be executed to save configuration changes to NVRAM?
• Router1# copy running-config flash
• Router1(config)# copy running-config flash
• Router1# copy running-config startup-config
• Router1(config)# copy running-config startup-config
• Router1# copy startup-config running-config
• Router1(config)# copy startup-config running-config

22. What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?
• NVRAM, FLASH, ROM
• FLASH, TFTP,CONSOLE
• NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE
• FLASH, TFTP, ROM

23. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?
• only the Layer 2 source address
• only the Layer 2 destination address
• only the Layer 3 source address
• only the Layer 3 destination address
• the Layer 2 source and destination address
• the Layer 3 source and destination address

CCNA 1 - Final Exam Answers V4.0

2009-07-29T10:36:00.000-07:00

1. Refer to the exhibit. Host B attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured at the FastEthernet interface fa0/1 of the San Francisco router. The packet inside the captured frame has the source IP address 10.10.1.2, and the destination IP address is 10.31.1.20. What is the destination MAC address of the frame at the time of capture?
• 0060.7320.D632
• 0060.7320.D631
• 0040.8517.44C3
• 0009.B2E4.EE03
• 0010.C2B4.3421

2. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
• It monitors the media for presence of a data signal.
• After detecting a collision, hosts can resume transmission after a random timer has expired.
• A jam signal is used to ensure that all hosts are aware that a collision has occurred.
• Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
• Data is transmitted only when the data signal is present.
• It uses a token system to avoid collisions.

3. Refer to the exhibit. The PC, the routing table of which is displayed, is configured correctly. To which network device or interface does the IP address 192.168.1.254 belong?
• PC
• switch
• router interface fa0/0
• router interface fa0/1

4. Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to access the Internet. Which combination of a Layer 2 address and a Layer 3 address will enable this access from host A?
• Destination MAC: 0030.8596.DE83 Default gateway: 209.165.202.130
• Destination MAC: 0030.8596.DE82 Default gateway: 172.16.9.2
• Destination MAC: 0030.8517.44C4 Default gateway: 172.16.1.1
• Destination MAC: 0030.8517.44C4 Default gateway: 209.165.202.130

5. Refer to the exhibit. Communication between hosts X and Y is restricted to the local network. What is the reason for this?
• The gateway addresses are broadcast addresses.
• Host Y is assigned a multicast address.
• Host X and host Y belong to different networks.
• Host X is assigned a network address.

6. What is the result of using the clock rate 56000 command at the serial interface of the router?
• The interface is configured as a DCE device.
• The interface timers are cleared.
• The FastEthernet interface is made to emulate a serial interface by assigning it a timing signal.
• The IP address for the serial interface is configured.

7. Which three addresses belong to the category of public IP addresses? (Choose three.)
• 127.0.0.1
• 196.1.105.6
• 132.11.9.99
• 10.0.0.1
• 172.16.9.10
• 46.1.1.97

8. Which three statements are true about transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
• TCP and UDP manage communication between multiple applications.
• TCP retransmits the packets for which the acknowledgment is not received.
• TCP acknowledges received data.
• UDP exchanges frames between the nodes of the network.
• TCP has no mechanism to acknowledge transmission errors.
• UDP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology describes the exhibited network?
• star
• ring
• point-to-point
• multi-access 10. Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco IOS device?
• It affects the operation of the device immediately when modified.
• It is stored in NVRAM.
• It should be deleted using the erase running-config command.
• It is automatically saved when the router reboots.

11. Refer to the exhibit. Host C is able to ping 127.0.0.1 successfully, but is unable to communicate with hosts A and B in the organization. What is the likely cause of the problem?
• Hosts A and B are not on the same subnet as host C.
• The IP addresses on the router serial interfaces are wrong.
• The subnet mask on host C is improperly configured.
• The FastEthernet interface fa0/0 of router 1 is wrongly configured.

12. A host is transmitting a video over the network. How does the transport layer allow this host to use multiple applications to transmit other data at the same time as the video transmission?
• It uses error control mechanisms.
• It uses a connectionless protocol only for multiple simultaneous transmissions.
• It uses multiple Layer 2 source addresses.
• It uses multiple port numbers.

13. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is unable to access PC2. To troubleshoot this problem, the technician needs to confirm that the next hop interface is operational. Which default gateway address should the technician ping from PC1 to confirm this?
• 10.0.0.254
• 192.168.0.249
• 192.168.0.250
• 10.0.1.254

14. Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and Cable 2 are wired for specific physical layer requirements. Which three segments use Cable 2? (Choose three.)
• Segment 1
• Segment 2
• Segment 3
• Segment 4
• Segment 5
• Segment 6

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be determined about the topology? (Choose two.)
• Three networks are needed.
• Two logical address ranges are required.
• A single broadcast domain is present.
• Three collision domains are present.
• Four networks are needed.

16. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the IP configuration that is displayed? (Choose three.)
• The assigned address is a private address.
• The PC cannot communicate with the DNS server.
• The network can have 126 hosts.
• The prefix of the computer address is /26.
• The IP address is routable on the Internet.
• The IP address is a multicast address. 17. Which password restricts Telnet access to the router?
• enable
• enable secret
• console
• VTY

18. Refer to the exhibit. To create the initial configuration, a network technician connected host A to the router using the connection that is shown. Which statement is true about this connection?
• It terminates at the Ethernet port of the router.
• It provides out-of-band console access.
• It terminates at the serial interface of the router.
• It requires a Telnet client on host A to access the router. 19. Which device should be used for routing a packet to a remote network?
• access switch
• DHCP server
• hub
• router

20. Refer to the exhibit. The serial interface of the router was configured with the use of the commands that are shown. The router cannot ping the router that is directly connected to interface serial 0/0/0. What should the network technician do to solve this problem?
• Configure the description at interface serial 0/0/0.
• Configure an IP address on interface serial 0/0/0.
• Remove the no shutdown command at interface serial 0/0/0
• Reboot the router.

21. Refer to the exhibit. In a network, host A is sending data segments to host B. The flow control of the segments that are being exchanged is displayed. Which two statements are true about this communication? (Choose two.)
• The initial window size is determined via the two-way handshake.
• The window size for the TCP session that is represented is initially set to 3000 bytes.
• Acknowledgment number 3001 indicates that host A will send the next segment with sequence number 3001.
• Host B expects that the next received segment number will be 3000.
• No more acknowledgments will be exchanged.

22. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to remotely access the CLI of the router from PC1 using modem 1. Which port of the router should be connected to modem 2 to enable this access?
• console
• Ethernet
• auxiliary
• serial 23. Which OSI layer uses a connection-oriented protocol to ensure reliable delivery of data?
• application layer
• presentation layer
• session layer
• transport layer 24. What are two functions of the data link layer? (Choose two.)
• It segments and reorders the data.
• It exchanges data between programs that are running on the source and destination hosts.
• It controls how data is placed onto the media.
• It generates signals to represent the bits in each frame.
• It encapsulates each packet with a header and a trailer to transfer it across the local media. 25. Refer to the exhibit. Which list refers only to end devices?
• D,E,F,G
• A,H,B,C
• A,D,E,F
• A,D,E,G

26. Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending e-mail between clients. Which list correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram?
• 1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
• 1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
• 1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
• 1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

27. Refer to the exhibit. Host B was powered off. What change will occur in the MAC table of the switch?
The table will remain unaffected.
• The switch will remove the MAC address at Fa0/19 immediately.
• The switch will retain the MAC address until host B is powered on again.
• The switch will rebuild the MAC table by assigning the FFFF.FFFF.FFFF address to port Fa0/19.

28. Refer to the exhibit. A technician has connected the PC to the switch using a Category 6 UTP cable. Which two statements are true about this connection? (Choose two.)
• The cable that is used is an Ethernet crossover cable.
• The transmit pin of the cable is terminated to the receive pin.
• The maximum distance between the switch and the PC can be 100 m.
• The maximum supported bandwidth is 1000 Mb/s.
• The Category 6 cable simulates a point-to-point WAN link and is unusable for this type of connection.

29. Refer to the exhibit. A host is using NAT to connect to the Internet. Which three IP addresses enable this connection? (Choose three.)
• 10.1.1.63
• 10.1.1.37
• 10.1.1.39
• 10.1.1.32
• 10.1.1.60
• 10.1.1.2 30. Refer to the exhibit. A PC is communicating with another PC on a remote network. The two networks are connected by three routers. Which action will help to identify the path between the hosts?
• Use the ipconfig command at the host.
• Use the ipconfig/all command at the destination.
• Use the tracert command at the host.
• Use the ping command at the destination.

31. An organization wants to create a subnet of the IP network 172.16.0.0. This subnet will accommodate 1000 hosts. Which subnet mask should be assigned to this network?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.248.0
• 255.255.252.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128

32. Refer to the exhibit. A host is connected to hub 1. Which combination of IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway can allow this host to function in the network?
• IP address: 172.16.31.36 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
• IP address: 172.16.31.63 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
IP address: 172.16.31.29 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
• IP address: 172.16.31.32 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
• IP address: 172.16.31.29 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 172.16.30.1
• IP address: 172.16.31.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35

33. Refer to the exhibit. A technician uses the nslookup command on the PC and views the output that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the IP address of the primary domain name server configured at the host? (Choose two.)
• 192.168.1.99
• 192.168.2.100
• 10.10.10.32
• 192.168.1.5
• the IP address of the website resolver1.xyz.local

34. Which OSI layer offers ordered data reconstruction services?
• application layer
• network layer
• presentation layer
• session layer
• transport layer

35. Refer to the exhibit. All devices in the network use default configurations. How many logical address ranges are required in this topology?
• 2
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 6

36. The network administrator wants to install a private application on a server. Which range of port numbers is normally assigned to this application to make it accessible by clients?
• 0 to 255
• 49152 to 65535
• 1024 to 49151
• 0 to 1023

37. Because of a security violation, the router password must be changed. What information can be learned from these configuration entries? (Choose two.)

• Router(config)# line vty 0 4

Router(config-line)# password arj15

Router(config-line)# login
• This configuration allows users to connect by using a modem.
• Users must specify which line, 0 or 4, they wish to connect to when making a connection.
• This configuration allows users to connect to the router via the use of the telnet command.
• This configuration allows five users to make simultaneous connections to this router.
• The configured password is automatically encrypted on the router.

38. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?
• Connection 1 - rollover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - crossover cable
• Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - crossover cable Connection 3 - rollover cable
• Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - rollover cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable
• Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - rollover cable
• Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable

39. Which two types of media are useful for connecting two devices separated by a distance of 500 meters? (Choose two.)
• 10 BASE-T
• 1000 BASE-TX
• 10 BASE-2
• 1000 BASE LX
• 1000 BASE-SX 40. Which information is used by the router to determine the path between the source and destination hosts?
• the host portion of the IP address
• the network portion of the IP address
• host default gateway address
• the MAC address

41. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the session information that is displayed? (Choose two.)
• This exchange is part of the three-way handshake.
• The destination port indicates that a Telnet session has been initiated.
• The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.
• The destination port indicates that an SMTP session has been initiated.
• The protocol is a connection-oriented protocol.

42. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is accessing multiple servers. Which combination of port number and address will uniquely identify a particular process running on a specific server?
• MAC address of the server and port number of the service
• IP address of the host and port number of the service
• MAC address of the host and port number of the service
• IP address of the server and port number of the service

43. A network technician wants to configure an IP address on a router interface by using the ip address 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 command. Which prompt should the technician see when entering this command?
• Router>
• Router(config-if)#
• Router#
• Router(config)# 44. Refer to the exhibit. Host X is unable to communicate with host Y. Which command can be run at host X to determine which intermediary device is responsible for this failure?
• telnet 192.168.1.1
• ping 192.168.1.1
• ftp 192.168.1.1
• tracert 192.168.1.1

45. Refer to the exhibit. In a network, PC1 sends a message to PC2. The frame received at PC2 is shown. What information in this frame determines the correct destination application?
• timing and synchronization bits
• destination and source physical addresses
• destination and source logical network addresses
• destination and source process numbers

46. An organization has been assigned network ID 10.10.128.0 and subnet mask 255.255.224.0. Which IP address range can be used for this organization?
• 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.160.255
• 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.159.255
• 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.192.255
• 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.0.159
• 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.159.0

47. What is the effect of using the Router# copy running-config startup-config command on a router?
• The contents of ROM will change.
• The contents of RAM will change.
• The contents of NVRAM will change.
• The contents of flash will change.

48. Which three IPv4 addresses represent valid host addresses for a subnet? (Choose three.)
• 10.1.12.79/28
• 10.1.12.113/28
• 10.1.12.32/28
• 10.1.11.5/27
• 10.1.11.97/27
• 10.1.11.128/27

49. Refer to the exhibit. The NAT functionality of the router is enabled to provide Internet access to the PC. However, the PC is still unable to access the Internet. Which IP address should be changed to 209.165.201.1 to enable the PC to access the Internet?
• 192.168.1.191
• 192.168.1.101
• 192.168.1.1
• 192.168.1.254

50. Which three statements are true about network layer addressing? (Choose three.)
• It uniquely identifies each host.
• It assists in forwarding packets across internetworks.
• It uses a logical 32-bit IPv4 address.
• It is not a configurable address.
• It is a physical address.
• It identifies the host from the first part of the address.

CCNA 1 - Module 11 Exam Answers V4.0

2009-07-29T10:33:00.004-07:00

1. Users in the network are experiencing slow response time when doing file transfers to a remote server. What command could be issued to determine if the router has experienced any input or output errors?
• show running-config
• show startup-config
• show interfaces
• show ip route
• show version
• show memory

2. Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to a clean router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command?
• enable password classline console 0password ccna
• enable secret ciscoenable password classline console 0password ccna
• enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0enable password classline console 0password ccna
• enable secret ciscoenable password 7 14141E0A1F17line console 0password 7 020507550A
• enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0enable password 7 14141E0A1F17line console 0password 7 020507550A

3. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator on HostA has problems accessing the FTP server. Layer three connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S1 interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB and run debug commands?
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class

RouterB(config)# line vty 0 4

RouterB(config-if)# login
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class

RouterB(config)# line vty 0 2

RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco

RouterB(config-vty)# login
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class

RouterB(config)# line vty 0

RouterB(config-line)# password cisco

RouterB(config-line)# login
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class

RouterB(config)# line aux 0

RouterB(config-line)# password cisco

RouterB(config-line)# login
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class

RouterB(config)# line aux 0

RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco

RouterB(config-vty)# login

4. Refer to the exhibit. The output is shown for the show ip route command executed on Router A. What does the IP address 192.168.2.2 represent?
• Gateway for the 192.168.1.0 network
• Gateway for the 192.168.3.0 network
• IP assigned to the serial port on Router A
• IP assigned to the serial port on Router B

5. What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?
• Router# name Fontana
• Router# hostname Fontana
• Router(config)# name Fontana
• Router(config)# hostname Fontana

6. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
• Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
• Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
• Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
• Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
• Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2 7. Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to this switch?
• NA-SW1(config-if)# no shutdown
• NA-SW1(config)# enable password password
• NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address
• NA-SW1(config-if)# description description

8. When network services fail, which port is most often used to access a router for management purposes?
AUX
Ethernet
• Console
Telnet
SSH

9. A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a router to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?
• Telnet
• Console
• AUX
• SSH

10. In a Cisco router, when do changes made to the running-configuration take effect?
• after a system restart
• as the commands are entered
• when logging off the system
• when the configuration is saved to the startup-configuration

11. Refer to the exhibit. Which names correctly identify the CLI mode represented by the prompt for Switch-East4#? (Choose two.)
• line configuration mode
• user executive mode
• global configuration mode
• privileged executive mode
• interface configuration mode
• enable mode

12. Which three terms correctly define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)
• hot keys
• context-check
• context-sensitive
• structured check
• command override
• command syntax check

13. Which combination of keys would be used at the CLI prompt to interrupt a ping or traceroute process?
• Ctrl-C
• Ctrl-P
• Ctrl-R
• Ctrl-Shift-6
• Ctrl-Z

14. Refer to the exhibit. What command will place the router into the correct mode to configure an appropriate interface to connect to a LAN?
• UBAMA# configure terminal
• UBAMA(config)# line vty 0 4
• UBAMA(config)# line console 0
• UBAMA(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
• UBAMA(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1

15. On a Cisco router, which interface would be used to make the initial configuration?
• Console Port

16. Refer to the exhibit. A student is responsible for the IP addressing, configuration and connectivity testing of the network shown in the graphic. A ping from host B to host C results in a destination unreachable but a ping from host B to host A was successful. What two reasons could account for this failure based on the graphic and partial router output for the Dallas router? (Choose two.)
• The host A is turned off.
• The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is shutdown.
• The LAN cable is disconnected from host B.
• The S0/0/1 IP address of Dallas is improperly configured.
• The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is in a different subnet than host B.
• The clock rate is missing on the serial link between Dallas and NYC.

CCNA 1 - Module 10 Exam Answers V4.0

2009-07-29T10:33:00.003-07:00

1. Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)
• connecting a PC to a router's console port
• connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports
• connecting two switches together at gigabit speeds
• connecting a PC to a switch at Gigabit Ethernet speeds
• connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet spee

2. Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?
• AUX interface
• Ethernet interface
• serial interface
• console interface

3. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)
• greater distances per cable run
• lower installation cost
• limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
• durable connections
• greater bandwidth potential
• easily terminated

4. A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?
• STP
• UTP
• coaxial
• single-mode fiber
• multimode fiber 5. What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?
• loss of signal strength as distance increases
• time for a signal to reach its destination
• leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
• strengthening of a signal by a networking device

6. How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?
• 30
• 256
• 2046
• 2048
• 4094
• 4096 7. Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.248.0 8. A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248

9. What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
• cross-over
• straight-through
• rollover
• patch cable

10. Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?
• hub
• switch
• bridge
• router
• repeater

11. Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a packet destined for PC2?
• 192.168.1.1
• 192.168.2.1
• 192.168.2.2
• 192.168.3.1
• 192.168.3.54

12. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?
• both host A and B would be successful
• host A would be successful, host B would fail
• host B would be successful, host A would fail
• both Host A and B would fail

13. Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco's V.35 serial cables? (Choose three.)
• RJ 11
• DB 60
• Winchester 15 pin
• DB 9
• smart serial
• RJ 45

14. Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is shown?
• 2
• 3
• 4
• 5

15. What are three common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose three.)
• direct configuration of the device
• cable color code association
• cable selection and configuration
• use of cable testers to determine pinouts
• the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs
• the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port

16. Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose three.)
• They propagate broadcasts.
• They enlarge collision domains.
• They segment broadcast domains.
• They interconnect different network technologies.
• Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.
• They maintain a common frame format between LAN and WAN interfaces.

17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet capture software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect the monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?
• router
• hub
• switch
• wireless access point

18. Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all devices are using default settings. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?
• 1
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 7

19. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology? (Choose three.)
• Hosts B and C are in the same subnet.
• Five broadcast domains are present.
• Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.
• Four broadcast domains are present.
• Five networks are shown.
• Host B is using a rollover cable to connect to the router. 20. To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable wiring option would be used?
• crossover cable
• straight through cable
• rollover cable
• V.35 cable

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
• Segment 1 uses backbone cabling.
• Segment 1 uses a patch cable.
• Segment 3 uses patch cabling.
• Segment 3 uses vertical cabling.
• Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.
• Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.

22. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the 192.168.1.0/24 private IP address range for use in the network that shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this internetwork?
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248

CCNA 1 - Module 9 Exam Answers V4.0

2009-07-29T10:33:00.001-07:00

1. In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?
• Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable segment.
• Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub, to signal its turn.
• Host B must send a request signal to Host A by transmitting an interframe gap.
• Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.

2. Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
• Network layer
• Transport layer
• Physical layer
• Application layer
• Session layer
• Data-link layer

3. Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)
• the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame.
• the maximum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame.
• the 96-bit payload padding inserted into a frame to achieve a legal frame size
• the 96-bit frame padding transmitted between frames to achieve proper synchronization
• the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame.
• the maximum interval within which a station must send another frame to avoid being considered unreachable

4. What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)
• addressing
• error detection
• frame delimiting
• port identification
• path determination
• IP address resolution

5. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
• The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode. <---
• The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
• The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
• The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.

6. What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)
• recognizes streams of bits
• identifies the network layer protocol.
• makes the connection with the upper layers.
• identifies the source and destination applications
• insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment.
• determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting

7. What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?
• MAC sublayer
• Physical layer
• Logical Link Control sublayer
• Network layer

8. Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?
• A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
• A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
• A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
• A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the frame field type with the contents that frame field includes?
• header field - preamble and stop frame
• data field - network layer packet
• data field - physical addressing
• trailer field - FCS and SoF

10. Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)
• Host A will change the destination IP to the IP of the nearest router and forward the packet.
• Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of its default gateway.
• A result of 172.16.225.0 will be obtained.
• Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.
• A result of 172.16.224.0 will be obtained.
• A result of 172.16.225.255 will be obtained.

11 Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?
• Collisions can decrease network performance.
• It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.
• Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.
• CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies.

12. Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?
• application
• physical
• transport
• internet
• data link
• network access

13. What is the primary purpose of ARP?
• translate URLs to IP addresses
• resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
• provide dynamic IP configuration to network devices
• convert internal private addresses to external public addresses

14. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
• No collisions will occur on this link.
• Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
• The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
• The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)
• A packet with the destination IP of Router_B.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of Switch_A.
• A packet with the destination IP of Router_A.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.

• A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of Server_B.

16 Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)
• dynamically assigned
• copied into RAM during system startup
• layer 3 address
• contains a 3 byte OUI
• 6 bytes long
• 32 bits long

17. Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)
• reduction in cross-talk
• minimizing of collisions
• support for UTP cabling
• division into broadcast domains
• increase in the throughput of communications

18. What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)
• coaxial thicknet
• copper UTP
• coaxial thinnet
• optical fiber
• shielded twisted pair

19. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
• 85
• 90
• BA
• A1
• B3
• 1C

20. After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?
• the device involved in the collision with the lowest MAC address
• the device involved in the collision with the lowest IP address
• any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first
• those that began transmitting at the same time

CCNA 1 - Module 8 Exam Answers V4.0

2009-07-29T10:32:00.003-07:00

1. Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?
• Presentation
• Transport
• Data Link
• Physical

2. An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?
• light injector
• OTDR
• TDR
• multimeter

3. Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)
• It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
• Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
• It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
• It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
• It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.

4. When is a straight-through cable used in a network?
• when connecting a router through the console port
• when connecting one switch to another switch
• when connecting a host to a switch
• when connecting a router to another router

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
• coax cable
• rollover cable
• crossover cable
• straight-through cable

6. Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?
• electrical
• optical
• wireless
• acoustic

7. In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?
• BNC
• RJ-11

• RJ-45
• Type F

8. Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?
• generally uses LEDs as the light source
• relatively larger core with multiple light paths
• less expensive than multimode
• generally uses lasers as the light source

9. Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?
• backbone cable
• horizontal cable
• patch cable
• work area cable

10. What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)
• goodput
• frequency
• amplitude
• throughput
• crosstalk
• bandwidth

11. With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?
• the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
• the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
• the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
• the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously

12. What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?
• create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
• provide physical addressing to the devices
• determine the path packets take through the network
• control data access to the media

13. In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?
• coax
• fiber
• Cat5e UTP
• Cat6 UTP
• STP

14. What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?
• Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.
• Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.
• An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.
• The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.

15. Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?
• Options three is right answer (kolmas)

16. What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?
• more host mobility
• lower security risks
• reduced susceptibility to interference
• less impact of the surroundings on the effective coverage area

17. What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?
• the metal braiding in the shielding
• the reflective cladding around core
• the twisting of the wires in the cable
• the insulating material in the outer jacket

CCNA 1 - Module 7 Exam Answers V4.0

2009-07-29T10:32:00.001-07:00

1. Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)
• the Layer 3 protocol selected
• the geographic scope of the network
• the PDU defined by the transport layer
• the physical layer implementation
• he number of hosts to be interconnected

2. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for www.server?
• 00-1c-41-ab-c0-00
• 00-0c-85-cf-65-c0
• 00-0c-85-cf-65-c1
• 00-12-3f-32-05-af

3. Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three.)
• non-deterministic
• less overhead
• one station transmits at a time
• collisions exist
• devices must wait their turn
• token passing

4. What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?
• The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
• Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
• Physical signal paths are defined by Data Link layer protocols.
• Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.

5. What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)
• Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD
defined as placement of data frames on the media
contention-based access is also known as deterministic
802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD
• Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media
controlled access contains data collisions

6. Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)
• Network usage is on a first come, first serve basis.
• Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
• Data from a host is received by all other hosts.
• Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.
• Token passing networks have problems with high collision rates.

7. A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawing?
• logical topology
• physical topology
• cable path
• wiring grid
• access topology

8. What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?
is used as a pad for data
identifies the source address
identifies the destination address
marks the end of timing information
• is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros

9. What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
• Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card
• Layer 2 identifies the applications that are communicating
• Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme
• Layer 4 directs communication to the proper destination network
• Layer 4 addresses are used by intermediary devices to forward data

10. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?
• All three networks use CSMA/CA
• None of the networks require media access control.
• Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.
• Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD.
• Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.

11. Refer to the exhibit. How many unique CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?
• 1
• 2
• 4
• 8

12. Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)
• source MAC - PC
• source MAC - S0/0 on RouterA
• source MAC - Fa0/1 on RouterB
• source IP - PC
• source IP - S0/0 on RouterA
• source IP - Fa0/1 of RouterB

13. Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?
• LLC
• MAC
• HDLC
• NIC

14. What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)
The Layer 2 address must be reassigned.
• The default gateway address should not be changed.
• The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.
• Applications and services will need additional port numbers assigned.
• The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network.

15. What is a function of the data link layer?
• provides the formatting of data
• provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
• provides delivery of data between two applications
• provides for the exchange data over a common local media

16. What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?
The nodes are physically connected.
The physical arrangement of the nodes is restricted.
• The media access control protocol can be very simple.
The data link layer protocol used over the link requires a large frame header.

17. What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?
• provide routes across the internetwork
• format the data for presentation to the user
• facilitate the entry and exit of data on media
• identify the services to which transported data is associated

18. What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?
• define the logical topology
• provide media access control
• support frame error detection
• carry routing information for the frame

19. What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)
• They are 48 binary bits in length.
• They are considered physical addresses.
• They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.
• They consist of four eight-bit octets of binary numbers.
• They are used to determine the data path through the network.
• They must be changed when an Ethernet device is added or moved within the network.

CCNA 1 - Module 6 Exam Answers V4.0

2009-07-29T10:30:00.000-07:00

1. Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme shown in the graphic.
• /24
• /16
• /20
• /27
• /25
• /28

2. Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
• 172.16.4.127 /26
• 172.16.4.155 /26
• 172.16.4.193 /26
• 172.16.4.95 /27
• 172.16.4.159 /27
• 172.16.4.207 /27

3. Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)
• NAT translates public addresses to private addresses destined for the Internet.
Only one company is allowed to use a specific private network address space.
• Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router.
• Network 172.32.0.0 is part of the private address space.
• IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself.

4. Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based • upon a given IP address and subnet mask?
• binary adding
• hexadecimal anding
• binary division
• binary multiplication
• binary ANDing

5. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
• The host subnet mask is incorrect.
• The default gateway is a network address.
• The default gateway is a broadcast address.
• The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.

6. What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.248.0

7. Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)

• 172.168.33.1
• 10.35.66.70
• 192.168.99.5
• 172.18.88.90
• 192.33.55.89
• 172.35.16.5

8. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?
• This is a useable host address.
• This is a broadcast address.
• This is a network address.
• This is not a valid address.

9. A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
• 172.16.0.0
• 172.16.192.0
• 172.16.192.128
• 172.16.192.160
• 172.16.192.168
• 172.16.192.176

10. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server's properties to allow connectivity to the network?

• IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.39
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
• IP address: 192.168.10.39 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.31
• IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 default gateway: 192.168.10.1

11. Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.)
• LAN workstations
• servers
• network printers
• routers
• remote workstations
• laptops

12. hich of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)

• larger address space
• faster routing protocols
• data types and classes of service
• authentication and encryption
• improved host naming conventions
• same addressing scheme as IPv4

13. What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?
• security
• header format simplification
• expanded addressing capabilities
• addressing simplification

14. What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)

• The router will discard the packet.
• The router will decrement the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
• The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host.
• The router will increment the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
• The router will send an ICMP Redirect Message to the source host.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?
• The IP settings are not properly configured on the host.
• Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host.
• There is a problem at the physical or data link layer.
• The default gateway device is not operating.
• A router on the path to the destination host has gone down.

16. How many bits make up an IPv4 address?

• 128
• 64
• 48
• 32

17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?

• The router has an incorrect gateway.
• Host A has an overlapping network address.
• Host A has an incorrect default gateway configured.
• Host A has an incorrect subnet mask.
• NAT is required for the host A network.

18. What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)
• identifies an individual device
• is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain
• is altered as packet is forwarded
• varies in length
• is used to forward packets
• uses flat addressing

19. What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses?

• an internet
• a network
• an octet
• a radix
• Bottom of Form
• Top of Form
• Bottom of Form

20. What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?

• 10101100. 00011001.01000011.00000000
• 10101100. 00011001.01000011.11111111
• 10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000
• 10101100. 00011001.01000010.01100011
• 10101100. 00010001.01000011. 01100010
• 10101100. 00011001.00000000.00000000

21. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?

• 255.255.255.248
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.252

CCNA 1 - Module 5 Exam Answers V4.0

2009-07-29T10:29:00.003-07:00

1. In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?
• destination network address
• source network address
• source MAC address
• well known port destination address

2. What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?
• source and destination MAC
• source and destination application protocol
• source and destination port number
• source and destination IP address

3. In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?
• The destination is contacted before a packet is sent.
• The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.
• The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that indicates the packet was received.
• The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that requests the next packet to be sent.

4. Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?
• type-of-service
• identification
• flags
• time-to-live
• header checksum

5. Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?
• host portion
• broadcast address
• network portion
• gateway address

6. Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?
• 192.135.250.1
• 192.31.7.1
• 192.133.219.0
• 192.133.219.1

7. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?
• The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
• The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
• The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
• There is no impact on communications.

8. What is the purpose of a default gateway?
• physically connects a computer to a network
• provides a permanent address to a computer
• identifies the network to which a computer is connected
• identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
• identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks

9. What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?
• dynamic
• interior
• static
• standard

10. When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)
• The router sends an ARP request to determine the required next hop address.
• The router discards the packet.
• The router forwards the packet toward the next hop indicated in the ARP table.
• The router forwards the packet to the interface indicated by the source address.
• The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.

11. What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)
• gateways
• purpose
• physical addressing
• software version
• geographic location
• ownership

12. What is a component of a routing table entry?
• the MAC address of the interface of the router
• the destination Layer 4 port number
• the destination host address
• the next-hop address

13. Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)
• router
• hub
• switch
• firewall
• access point
• bridge

14. What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)
• too few broadcasts
• performance degradation
• security issues
• limited management responsibility
• host identification
• protocol compatibility

15. Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 7
• 8
11

16. Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)
If no route to the destination network is found, the packet is returned to the previous router.
If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.
• If multiple network entries exist for the destination network, the most general route is used to forward the packet.
• If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.
• If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.
• If a host does not have a route manually configured for the destination network, the host will drop the packet.

17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?
• 10.10.10.26
• 127.0.0.1
• 10.10.10.6
• 10.10.10.1
• 224.0.0.0

18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)
• Replace S2 with a router.
• Place all servers on S1.
• Disable TCP/IP broadcasts.
• Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.
• Disable all unused interfaces on the switches.

19. Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)
• 192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
• 10.0.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 10.0.0.0 network.
• 192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
• 172.16.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 to the 172.16.0.0 network.
• 192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
• 192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.

20. What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• require no device configuration
• provide routers with up-to-date routing tables
• require less processing power than static routes require
• consume bandwidth to exchange route information
• prevent manual configuration and maintenance of the routing table

21. What statement describes the purpose of a default route?
• A host uses a default route to transfer data to another host on the same network segment.
• A host uses a default route to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all destinations.
• A host uses a default route to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the local network.
• A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.

CCNA 1 - Module 4 Exam Answers V4.0

2009-07-29T10:29:00.001-07:00

1. Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)
• This is a UDP header.
• This contains a Telnet request.
• This contains a TFTP data transfer.
• The return packet from this remote host will have an Acknowledgement Number of 43693.
• This is a TCP header.

2. With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?
• 0 to 255
• 256 to 1022
• 0 to 1023
• 1024 to 2047
• 49153 to 65535

3. Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
• to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
• to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
• to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
• to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
• to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order

4. Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?
• application
• presentation
• session
• transport
• network

5. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?
• create a Layer 1 jam signal
• reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged
• send a RESET bit to the host
• change the window size in the Layer 4 header

6. Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?
• to synchronize equipment speed for sent data
• to synchronize and order sequence numbers so data is sent in complete numerical order
• to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data
• to synchronize window size on the server
• to simplify data transfer to multiple hosts

7. Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)
• identifies the destination network
• identifies source and destination hosts
• identifies the communicating applications
• identifies multiple conversations between the hosts
• identifies the devices communicating over the local media

8. Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?
• session establishment
• segment retransmit
• data transfer
• session disconnect
• Bottom of Form

9. Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
• The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.
• A termination request has been sent to 192.135.250.10.
• Communication with 64.100.173.42 is using HTTP Secure.
• The local computer is accepting HTTP requests.
• 192.168.1.101:1042 is performing the three-way handshake with 128.107.229.50:80.

10. What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?
• destination logical address
• source physical address
• default gateway address
• source port

11. What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)
• flow control
• low overhead
• connectionless
• connection-oriented
• sequence and acknowledgements

12. What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?
• sequence numbers
• session establishment
• window size
• acknowledgments

13. Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?
• TCP
• IP
• UDP
• HTTP
• DNS

14. Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
• sequencing
• flow control
• acknowledgments
• source and destination

15. Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?
• encapsulation
• flow control
• connectionless services
• session establishment
• numbering and sequencing
• best effort delivery

16. During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?
• The packets will not be delivered.
• The packets will be retransmitted from the source.
• The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.
• The packets will be delivered and not reassembled at the destination.

17. Which is an important characteristic of UDP?
• acknowledgement of data delivery
• minimal delays in data delivery
• high reliability of data delivery
• same order data delivery

18. After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?
• 13
• 53
• 80
• 1024
• 1728

19. Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?
• The two applications exchange data.
• TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.
• UDP establishes the maximum number of bytes to be sent.
• The server acknowledges the bytes of data received from the client.

CCNA 1 - Module 3 Exam Answers V4.0

2009-07-29T10:28:00.001-07:00

1. What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server?
• HTML
• HTTP
• FTP
• Telnet

2. What are two forms of application layer software? (Choose two.)
• applications
• dialogs
• requests
• services
• syntax

3. A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model? (Choose two.)
• centralized administration
• does not require specialized software
• security is easier to enforce
• lower cost implementation
• provides a single point of failure

4. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?
• temporarily holds resolved entries
• used by the server to resolve names
• sent by the client to during a query
• passes authentication information between the server and client

5. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?
• HTTP
• SSH
• FQDN
• DNS
• Telnet
• SMTP

6. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
• ARP
• DNS
• PPP
• SMTP
• POP
• ICMP

7. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.)
• acts as both a client and server within the same communication.
• requires centralized account administration.
• hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files.
• can be used in client-server networks.
• requires a direct physical connection between devices.
• centralized authentication is required.

8. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two.)
• DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
• HTTP transfers data from a web server to a client
• POP delivers email from the client to the server email server
• SMTP supports file sharing
• Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access

9. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.)
• MDA
• IMAP
• MTA
• POP
• SMTP
• MUA

10. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?
• not widely available
• does not support encryption
• consumes more network bandwidth
• does not support authentication

11. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? (Choose three.)
• routes email to the MDA on other servers
• receives email from the client's MUA
• receives email via the POP3 protocol
• passes email to the MDA for final delivery
• uses SMTP to route email between servers
• delivers email to clients via the POP3 protocol

12. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser? (Choose two.)
• ASP
• FTP
HTML
• HTTP
• HTTPS
• IP

13. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type? (Choose two.)
• User accounts are centralized.
• Security is difficult to enforce.
• Specialized operating system software is required.
• File permissions are controlled by a single computer.
• A computer that responds to a file sharing request is functioning as a server.

14. Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network?
• physical
• session
• network
• presentation
• application
• transport

15. Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5?
• 80
• 1261
• 15533
• 3912
• 65520

16. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)
• scalable
• one way data flow
• decentralized resources
• centralized user accounts
• resource sharing without a dedicated server

17. What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks?
• DHCP
• DNS
• SMB
• SMTP
• Telnet

18. What are two characteristics of clients in data networks? (Choose two.)
• use daemons
• initiate data exchanges
• are repositories of data
• may upload data to servers
• listen for requests from servers

19. What is the role of the OSI application layer?
• provides segmentation of data
• provides encryption and conversion of data
• provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network
• provides control of all the data flowing between the source and destination devices

20. How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services?
• ceases all connections to the service
• denies multiple connections to a single daemon
• suspends the current connection to allow the new connection
• uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the service

CCNA 1 - Module 2 Exam Answers V4.0

2009-07-29T10:27:00.001-07:00

1. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)
• Network
• Transport
• Physical
• Data Link
• Session

2. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
• supports error detection
• ensures ordered arrival of data
• provides delivery to correct destination
• identifies the devices on the local network
• assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection

3. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
• No address is added.
• The logical address is added.
• The physical address is added.
• The process port number is added.

4. What device is considered an intermediary device?
• file server
• IP phone
• laptop
• printer
• switch

5.Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?
• physical
• data link
• network
• transport

6. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)
• determine pathways for data
• initiate data communications
• retime and retransmit data signals
• originate the flow of data
• manage data flows
• final termination point for data flow

7. What can be identified by examining the network layer header?
• the destination device on the local media
• the path to use to reach the destination host
• the bits that will be transferred over the media
• the source application or process creating the data

8. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?
• physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transport
• application, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentation
• application, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network
• application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical
• presentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
• Network A -- WAN
• Network B -- WAN
• Network C -- LAN
• Network B -- MAN
• Network C -- WAN
• Network A -- LAN

10. What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.)
• allows modification of the original data before transmission
• identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication
• enables consistent network paths for communication
• ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device
• enables the reassembly of complete messages
• tracks delay between end devices

11. Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?
• piping
• PDU
• streaming
• multiplexing
• encapsulation

12. What is a PDU?
• corruption of a frame during transmission
• data reassembled at the destination
• retransmitted packets due to lost communication
• a layer specific encapsulation

13. Refer to the exhibit. "Cell A" at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with "IP Phone 1" at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device "Cell A?"
• the destination device
• an end device
• an intermediate device
• a media device

14. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?
• A, C, D
• B, E, G, H
• C, D, G, H, I, J
• D, E, F, H, I, J
• E, F, H, I, J

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the green area?
• source
• end
• transfer
• intermediary

16. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
• A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
• The network is administered by a single organization.
• The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection.
• The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider.
• A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization.
• Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP).

17. Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?
• WAN
• MAN
• LAN
• WLAN

18. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?
• path determination and packet switching
• data representation, encoding, and control
• reliability, flow control, and error detection
• detailing the components that make up the physical link and how to access it
• the division of segments into packets

19. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?
• manage data flows
• originate data flow
• retime and retransmit data signals
• determine pathways for data

20. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?
• to identify devices on the local media
• to identify the hops between source and destination
• to identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the network
• to identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating
• to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices

21. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)
• define the structure of layer specific PDU's
• dictate how to accomplish layer functions
• outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
• limit hardware compatibility
• require layer dependent encapsulations
• eliminate standardization among vendors

CCNA 1 - Module 1 Exam Answers V4.0

2009-07-29T08:31:00.000-07:00

1. Which of the following descriptions are true regarding the management connections on a Cisco router? (Choose three.)

• They are non-network connections.
• They are used to connect the router to the rest of the production network.
• They are synchronous serial ports.
• They are used for initial router configuration.
• They are asynchronous serial ports.
• They are accessed using their assigned IP address.

2. The console port can be used for which of the following? (Choose three.)
• debugging.
• password recovery.
• routing data between networks.
• troubleshooting.
• connecting one router to another.

3. Which of the following describes the function of a WAN?
• connects peripherals in a single location.
• connects multiple networks in a single building.
• provides connectivity on a LAN.
• provides connectivity over a large geographic area.

4. An internetwork must include which of the following? (Choose three.)
• switching.
• static addressing.
• IETF standardization.
• dynamic or static routing.
• consistent end-to-end addressing.

5. ABC Company just purchased three new routers to start their company network. Which items are needed to establish a terminal session between a PC and the router for the initial configuration? (Choose three.)
• straight-through cable.
• terminal emulation software.
• rollover cable.
• RJ-45 to DB-9 connector.
• V.35 cable.

6.Terminal emulation software, such as HyperTerminal, can be used to configure a router. Which of the following HyperTerminal options shown in the graphic are correctly set to allow configuration of a Cisco router? (Choose three.)
• bits per second.
• data bits.
• parity.
• stop bits.
• flow control.

7. Which of the following devices are used in the construction of a WAN? (Choose three.)
• hubs.
• routers.
• communication servers.
• transceivers.
• modems.
• multi-port repeaters.

8. Which of the following are functions of RAM? (Choose three.)
• contains startup configuration file.
• stores routing table.
• holds fast switching cache.
• retains contents when power is removed.
• stores running configuration file.

9. Why is a console connection to a router or switch preferred when troubleshooting? (Choose two.)
• can be accessed remotely.
• does not depend on network services.
• displays startup and error messages by default.
• does not require special components.

10. Which basic components do a router and a standard desktop PC have in common? (Choose three.)
• CPU.
• hard drive.
• input/output interfaces.
• keyboard.
• monitor.
• system bus.

11. During the initial configuration of a 2600 series Cisco router, which cable is required for connecting a PC to the console port?
• twisted.
• crossover.
• rollover.
• straight.

12. A router is composed of many internal components. Which of the following components stores a copy of the router's configuration file?
• metal-oxide memory.
• read only memory.
• flash memory.
• non-volatile random access memory.

13. What contains the instructions that a router uses to control the flow of traffic through its interfaces?
• packet configuration.
• configuration files.
• flash memory.
• internal components.

14. Several Ethernet hosts on a LAN need the gateway services of a Cisco 2500 series router. Which of the following would be needed to physically connect a router to all of the hosts on the LAN? (Choose two.)
• a crossover cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch.
• a crossover cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN.
• a straight-through cable between the auxiliary port on a router and a switch.
• a rollover cable between the console port on a router and a switch.
• straight-through cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN.
• a straight-through cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch.

15. Which router component holds the configuration file when power is lost?
• volatile random access memory.
• read only memory.
• non-volatile random access memory.
• flash memory.

16. Which of the following layers of the OSI model are incorporated in WAN standards? (Choose two.)
physical layer.
• application layer.
• transport layer.
• data link layer.
• session layer.

17. Which of the following are true regarding router interfaces? (Choose three.)
• provide temporary memory for the router configuration files.
• connect the router to the network for packet entry and exit.
• can be on the motherboard or a separate module.
• hold the IOS image.
• connect the router to LANs and WANs.

18. Which of the following tasks can be accomplished through a management connection on a router? (Choose three.)
• troubleshooting problems.
• monitoring the system.
• capturing LAN data packets.
• configuring the router.
• routing data packets.

19. What do routers use to select the best path for outgoing data packets?
• ARP tables.
• bridging tables.
• routing tables.
• switching tables.

20. Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)
• stores the routing table.
• retains contents when power is removed.
• stores the startup configuration file.
• contains the running configuration file.
• stores the ARP table.

21. Select the statements that correctly describe flash memory in a 2600 series router? (Choose two.)
• holds the startup configuration by default.
• can be upgraded with single in-line memory modules.
• stores Cisco IOS software images.
• stores routing table information by default.
• maintains the only copy of an IOS image after the router is booted.